DAT Biology Practice Test 6# Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #6 1 / 40 1. In the context of animal behaviors, what is the purpose of communication? To facilitate classical conditioning To trigger a Fixed Action Pattern To foster non-associative learning To coordinate social behaviors with other animals To increase an animal's fitness 2 / 40 2. Which type of learning is NOT necessarily associated with reinforcement but involves an animal learning by observing another animal perform the same behavior? Associative learning Observational learning Operant conditioning Classical conditioning Non-associative learning 3 / 40 3. What does the term 'brackish water' refer to in the context of aquatic biomes? The water in the aphotic zone where there is no light or photosynthetic species The mixing of freshwater and saltwater, particularly in estuaries The water in the euphotic zone where sunlight penetrates all the way to the ocean floor The water in the disphotic zone where there is semi-irradiation from the sun The water where bioluminescent species produce light 4 / 40 4. What kind of organism is an autotroph? An organism that eats both plants and animals. An organism that must ingest organic compounds to generate energy. An organism that utilizes inorganic compounds as their electron donors during cell respiration. An organism that produces organic compounds from abiotic factors. An organism that eats only plants. 5 / 40 5. How does biochemistry provide evidence of evolution? By observing embryological similarities and differences between related organisms. By studying the spread of different species around the world. By studying the fossils of different species from various time periods. By comparing the anatomy of different animals. By comparing DNA sequences and observing common conserved pathways in different species. 6 / 40 6. During oogenesis, when does an ovum complete meiosis I? When it is fertilized. During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle. At puberty, during each monthly cycle. During the embryonic development. During the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. 7 / 40 7. What is the purpose of positive feedback loops in hormonal regulation? To stimulate a pathway and increase production To facilitate the storage of hormones for future use To maintain the body's homeostasis To inhibit a pathway and decrease production To decrease hormone production when levels are too high 8 / 40 8. What differentiates the papillary dermis from the reticular dermis? The papillary dermis is made of squamous cells, while the reticular dermis is made of columnar cells The papillary dermis is deeper than the reticular dermis The papillary dermis contains hair follicles, while the reticular dermis does not The papillary dermis is more superficial and thin, while the reticular dermis is deeper and thick The papillary dermis contains sebaceous glands, while the reticular dermis contains sweat glands 9 / 40 9. What is the function of the keratinocytes in the epidermis? They store fat for insulation They produce vitamin D in response to sunlight They secrete sweat for thermoregulation They protect against dehydration, UV radiation, and pathogens They produce melanin for skin color 10 / 40 10. Which hormone is inhibited by the intake of alcohol, leading to increased urination? Aldosterone Renin Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) Angiotensin II Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) 11 / 40 11. What is the primary function of the villi and microvilli in the small intestine? They increase the surface area of the intestine, enhancing nutrient absorption. They facilitate peristalsis, aiding in the movement of food through the intestine. They produce digestive enzymes. They secrete mucus to lubricate the intestinal walls. They protect the lining of the intestine from acidic chyme. 12 / 40 12. Where does most digestion and nutrient absorption occur within the human body? The liver and gallbladder The large intestine The mouth and esophagus The stomach The small intestine 13 / 40 13. Which gland produces melatonin, and what is its main function? The pineal gland produces melatonin to regulate circadian rhythm. The adrenal gland produces melatonin to fight stress. The thyroid gland produces melatonin to increase metabolism. The hypothalamus produces melatonin to maintain homeostasis. The pituitary gland produces melatonin to stimulate body cells to grow and divide. 14 / 40 14. Which hormone stimulates the release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal gland? Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Prolactin 15 / 40 15. Which type of joint partially moves and is cartilaginous? Fibrous joints Hyaline joints Diarthroses Amphiarthroses Synarthroses 16 / 40 16. Which of the following statements accurately describes the H zone? The H zone is the area in the sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present. The H zone is the area in the sarcomere where actin and myosin overlap. The H zone is the area in the sarcomere where only thick myosin filaments are present. The H zone is the midpoint of the sarcomere. The H zone is the area in the sarcomere where only thin actin filaments are present. 17 / 40 17. What is rigor mortis? The state of muscle contraction that occurs when there is an excess of ATP. A state of muscle relaxation. A condition in which the sarcoplasmic reticulum is damaged. A state of muscle contraction that occurs in living animals. The state of muscle contraction that occurs after death due to the absence of ATP. 18 / 40 18. What is the function of microglial cells? To produce cerebrospinal fluid To help support and surround neurons To form the myelin sheath To protect the central nervous system To form the blood-brain barrier 19 / 40 19. Which of the following is not a part of the neuron? All of the above are parts of the neuron Soma Synapse Dendrites Axon 20 / 40 20. Which type of immunity is gained from receiving antibodies from another organism that already has that immunity? Artificial immunity Humoral immunity Active immunity Passive immunity Innate immunity 21 / 40 21. How does decreased pH affect hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen? Decreased pH reduces hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen None of the above Decreased pH has no effect on hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen Decreased pH eliminates hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen Decreased pH increases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen 22 / 40 22. Which of the following conditions is caused by rapid breathing? Respiratory alkalosis None of the above Metabolic alkalosis Metabolic acidosis Respiratory acidosis 23 / 40 23. Which of the following statements is true about the chordates' circulatory system? Reptiles and amphibians have 4-chambered hearts Most chordates have an open circulatory system Fish have a 4-chambered heart Homeothermic chordates have a 3-chambered heart The alligators and crocodiles are an exception and have a 3-chambered heart 24 / 40 24. Which of the following statements is true about heart sounds? The semilunar valves snap shut during the dub sound The “dub” sound is caused by atria contracting while the ventricles are relaxing The “lub” sound is caused by semilunar valves snapping shut Systole occurs between the dub and next lub sound Diastole occurs between the lub and dub sounds 25 / 40 25. Which of the following is not a component of the pistil? Style Filament Stigma All of the above are components of the pistil. Ovary 26 / 40 26. Which of the following is a characteristic of fungi? Presence of cell wall made of chitin Photosynthetic ability All of the above Unicellular and multicellular forms Eukaryotic and prokaryotic forms 27 / 40 27. Which phylum is characterized by having a gastrovascular cavity for digestion? Nematoda Platyhelminthes Cnidaria Annelida Mollusca 28 / 40 28. What is the difference between totipotent, pluripotent, and multipotent cells? Their ability to replicate. Their ability to be found in different parts of the body. Their ability to carry genetic information. Their ability to differentiate into different types of cells. Their size and shape. 29 / 40 29. Which of the following cellular biological lab techniques is based on the principle of electrical resistance? Hemocytometers Differential centrifugation Automated cell counting Bacterial growth curve Colony Forming Units (CFUs) 30 / 40 30. What is a Pedigree chart used for? To track inherited traits over many generations to see inheritance patterns. To determine the genotype of an individual in a cross. To visualize the process of nondisjunction during cell division. To visualize the process of crossing over during prophase I of meiosis. To illustrate the process of gene linkage. 31 / 40 31. Which of the following best describes the role of the TATA box in eukaryotic transcription? It is a sequence in many promoters that transcription factors recognize and bind to. It is a DNA site where repressor proteins bind to decrease gene transcription. It is an enzyme that attaches an amino acid to a specific tRNA using ATP. It is an enzyme that adds adenine nucleotides to the 3’ end of the mRNA. It is a protein that assists newly synthesized polypeptides to fold into their correct shape. 32 / 40 32. What is the function of topoisomerase in the process of DNA replication? It holds DNA polymerase onto the template strand. It unzips the DNA by breaking hydrogen bonds between strands. It places RNA primers at the origin of replication to create 3’ ends for nucleotide addition. It adds free nucleoside triphosphates to 3’ ends. It nicks the DNA double helix ahead of helicase to relieve built-up tension and supercoiling. 33 / 40 33. What is the purpose of anchorage dependence in cell regulation? To prevent cancerous growth To halt cell division when density of cells is high To check for chromosomal attachment to spindle fibers To signal for cell division To divide only when attached to an external surface 34 / 40 34. What happens during the S phase of the cell cycle? Cells carry out their functions but halt in the cell cycle Cell replicates its genome The physical separation of the cytoplasm and cell membrane into two daughter cells occurs Cell grows in preparation for division Cell checks DNA for any errors after replication 35 / 40 35. What is the final product of the Calvin cycle? Oxygen Glucose Water Carbon dioxide ATP and NADPH 36 / 40 36. Why are proteins considered the least desirable source of energy? All of the above They are difficult to break down They are needed for essential functions in the body They require a considerable amount of energy to enter cellular respiration None of the above 37 / 40 37. What happens to pyruvate in pyruvate oxidation? It is converted into glucose. It is converted into acetyl-CoA. It is converted into ADP. It is converted into NADH. It is converted into ATP. 38 / 40 38. Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of microfilaments in the cytoskeleton? They act as motor proteins that transport cargo along microtubules. They mainly provide structural support, like keratin in skin, hair, and nails. They are hollow structures that have walls made of tubulin protein dimers. They assist in cell movement and can quickly assemble and disassemble. They are involved in the formation of the nuclear lamina. 39 / 40 39. What is the main difference between integral and peripheral membrane proteins? Integral proteins are composed of glycoproteins, while peripheral proteins are not. Integral proteins increase the fluidity of the cell membrane, while peripheral proteins decrease it. Integral proteins are amphipathic, while peripheral proteins are hydrophilic. Integral proteins bind to receptors, while peripheral proteins do not. Integral proteins introduce kinks in the lipid bilayer, while peripheral proteins do not. 40 / 40 40. What is a proteome? None of the above The three-dimensional structure of a protein The set of amino acids in a polypeptide The sequence of amino acids connected through peptide bonds All of the proteins expressed by one type of cell under one set of conditions Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback