DAT Biology Practice Test 6# Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #6 1 / 40 1. In the context of animal behaviors, what is the purpose of communication? To increase an animal's fitness To coordinate social behaviors with other animals To trigger a Fixed Action Pattern To facilitate classical conditioning To foster non-associative learning 2 / 40 2. Which type of learning is NOT necessarily associated with reinforcement but involves an animal learning by observing another animal perform the same behavior? Associative learning Non-associative learning Operant conditioning Observational learning Classical conditioning 3 / 40 3. What does the term 'brackish water' refer to in the context of aquatic biomes? The water in the euphotic zone where sunlight penetrates all the way to the ocean floor The water in the disphotic zone where there is semi-irradiation from the sun The water in the aphotic zone where there is no light or photosynthetic species The mixing of freshwater and saltwater, particularly in estuaries The water where bioluminescent species produce light 4 / 40 4. What kind of organism is an autotroph? An organism that eats both plants and animals. An organism that produces organic compounds from abiotic factors. An organism that eats only plants. An organism that must ingest organic compounds to generate energy. An organism that utilizes inorganic compounds as their electron donors during cell respiration. 5 / 40 5. How does biochemistry provide evidence of evolution? By studying the spread of different species around the world. By studying the fossils of different species from various time periods. By observing embryological similarities and differences between related organisms. By comparing the anatomy of different animals. By comparing DNA sequences and observing common conserved pathways in different species. 6 / 40 6. During oogenesis, when does an ovum complete meiosis I? When it is fertilized. During the embryonic development. At puberty, during each monthly cycle. During the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle. 7 / 40 7. What is the purpose of positive feedback loops in hormonal regulation? To maintain the body's homeostasis To inhibit a pathway and decrease production To decrease hormone production when levels are too high To facilitate the storage of hormones for future use To stimulate a pathway and increase production 8 / 40 8. What differentiates the papillary dermis from the reticular dermis? The papillary dermis is deeper than the reticular dermis The papillary dermis is made of squamous cells, while the reticular dermis is made of columnar cells The papillary dermis contains hair follicles, while the reticular dermis does not The papillary dermis is more superficial and thin, while the reticular dermis is deeper and thick The papillary dermis contains sebaceous glands, while the reticular dermis contains sweat glands 9 / 40 9. What is the function of the keratinocytes in the epidermis? They store fat for insulation They protect against dehydration, UV radiation, and pathogens They secrete sweat for thermoregulation They produce vitamin D in response to sunlight They produce melanin for skin color 10 / 40 10. Which hormone is inhibited by the intake of alcohol, leading to increased urination? Renin Aldosterone Angiotensin II Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) 11 / 40 11. What is the primary function of the villi and microvilli in the small intestine? They protect the lining of the intestine from acidic chyme. They facilitate peristalsis, aiding in the movement of food through the intestine. They increase the surface area of the intestine, enhancing nutrient absorption. They produce digestive enzymes. They secrete mucus to lubricate the intestinal walls. 12 / 40 12. Where does most digestion and nutrient absorption occur within the human body? The mouth and esophagus The stomach The liver and gallbladder The large intestine The small intestine 13 / 40 13. Which gland produces melatonin, and what is its main function? The hypothalamus produces melatonin to maintain homeostasis. The pituitary gland produces melatonin to stimulate body cells to grow and divide. The thyroid gland produces melatonin to increase metabolism. The pineal gland produces melatonin to regulate circadian rhythm. The adrenal gland produces melatonin to fight stress. 14 / 40 14. Which hormone stimulates the release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal gland? Luteinizing hormone (LH) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) Prolactin 15 / 40 15. Which type of joint partially moves and is cartilaginous? Hyaline joints Fibrous joints Synarthroses Amphiarthroses Diarthroses 16 / 40 16. Which of the following statements accurately describes the H zone? The H zone is the area in the sarcomere where only thick myosin filaments are present. The H zone is the area in the sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present. The H zone is the midpoint of the sarcomere. The H zone is the area in the sarcomere where actin and myosin overlap. The H zone is the area in the sarcomere where only thin actin filaments are present. 17 / 40 17. What is rigor mortis? A state of muscle contraction that occurs in living animals. The state of muscle contraction that occurs when there is an excess of ATP. The state of muscle contraction that occurs after death due to the absence of ATP. A state of muscle relaxation. A condition in which the sarcoplasmic reticulum is damaged. 18 / 40 18. What is the function of microglial cells? To form the blood-brain barrier To produce cerebrospinal fluid To form the myelin sheath To help support and surround neurons To protect the central nervous system 19 / 40 19. Which of the following is not a part of the neuron? All of the above are parts of the neuron Soma Dendrites Synapse Axon 20 / 40 20. Which type of immunity is gained from receiving antibodies from another organism that already has that immunity? Innate immunity Active immunity Passive immunity Artificial immunity Humoral immunity 21 / 40 21. How does decreased pH affect hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen? Decreased pH eliminates hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen Decreased pH increases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen None of the above Decreased pH has no effect on hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen Decreased pH reduces hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen 22 / 40 22. Which of the following conditions is caused by rapid breathing? Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic acidosis Respiratory acidosis None of the above Metabolic alkalosis 23 / 40 23. Which of the following statements is true about the chordates' circulatory system? Reptiles and amphibians have 4-chambered hearts The alligators and crocodiles are an exception and have a 3-chambered heart Homeothermic chordates have a 3-chambered heart Fish have a 4-chambered heart Most chordates have an open circulatory system 24 / 40 24. Which of the following statements is true about heart sounds? The “lub” sound is caused by semilunar valves snapping shut The semilunar valves snap shut during the dub sound Systole occurs between the dub and next lub sound Diastole occurs between the lub and dub sounds The “dub” sound is caused by atria contracting while the ventricles are relaxing 25 / 40 25. Which of the following is not a component of the pistil? Filament Stigma Style All of the above are components of the pistil. Ovary 26 / 40 26. Which of the following is a characteristic of fungi? Unicellular and multicellular forms Presence of cell wall made of chitin Photosynthetic ability All of the above Eukaryotic and prokaryotic forms 27 / 40 27. Which phylum is characterized by having a gastrovascular cavity for digestion? Platyhelminthes Nematoda Cnidaria Mollusca Annelida 28 / 40 28. What is the difference between totipotent, pluripotent, and multipotent cells? Their ability to replicate. Their size and shape. Their ability to be found in different parts of the body. Their ability to carry genetic information. Their ability to differentiate into different types of cells. 29 / 40 29. Which of the following cellular biological lab techniques is based on the principle of electrical resistance? Hemocytometers Colony Forming Units (CFUs) Differential centrifugation Bacterial growth curve Automated cell counting 30 / 40 30. What is a Pedigree chart used for? To visualize the process of crossing over during prophase I of meiosis. To illustrate the process of gene linkage. To track inherited traits over many generations to see inheritance patterns. To visualize the process of nondisjunction during cell division. To determine the genotype of an individual in a cross. 31 / 40 31. Which of the following best describes the role of the TATA box in eukaryotic transcription? It is a DNA site where repressor proteins bind to decrease gene transcription. It is a sequence in many promoters that transcription factors recognize and bind to. It is an enzyme that attaches an amino acid to a specific tRNA using ATP. It is a protein that assists newly synthesized polypeptides to fold into their correct shape. It is an enzyme that adds adenine nucleotides to the 3’ end of the mRNA. 32 / 40 32. What is the function of topoisomerase in the process of DNA replication? It holds DNA polymerase onto the template strand. It nicks the DNA double helix ahead of helicase to relieve built-up tension and supercoiling. It places RNA primers at the origin of replication to create 3’ ends for nucleotide addition. It adds free nucleoside triphosphates to 3’ ends. It unzips the DNA by breaking hydrogen bonds between strands. 33 / 40 33. What is the purpose of anchorage dependence in cell regulation? To divide only when attached to an external surface To prevent cancerous growth To check for chromosomal attachment to spindle fibers To halt cell division when density of cells is high To signal for cell division 34 / 40 34. What happens during the S phase of the cell cycle? Cells carry out their functions but halt in the cell cycle Cell replicates its genome Cell grows in preparation for division Cell checks DNA for any errors after replication The physical separation of the cytoplasm and cell membrane into two daughter cells occurs 35 / 40 35. What is the final product of the Calvin cycle? Carbon dioxide Water ATP and NADPH Glucose Oxygen 36 / 40 36. Why are proteins considered the least desirable source of energy? They require a considerable amount of energy to enter cellular respiration All of the above None of the above They are difficult to break down They are needed for essential functions in the body 37 / 40 37. What happens to pyruvate in pyruvate oxidation? It is converted into glucose. It is converted into ATP. It is converted into ADP. It is converted into acetyl-CoA. It is converted into NADH. 38 / 40 38. Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of microfilaments in the cytoskeleton? They mainly provide structural support, like keratin in skin, hair, and nails. They act as motor proteins that transport cargo along microtubules. They are hollow structures that have walls made of tubulin protein dimers. They assist in cell movement and can quickly assemble and disassemble. They are involved in the formation of the nuclear lamina. 39 / 40 39. What is the main difference between integral and peripheral membrane proteins? Integral proteins increase the fluidity of the cell membrane, while peripheral proteins decrease it. Integral proteins are composed of glycoproteins, while peripheral proteins are not. Integral proteins introduce kinks in the lipid bilayer, while peripheral proteins do not. Integral proteins are amphipathic, while peripheral proteins are hydrophilic. Integral proteins bind to receptors, while peripheral proteins do not. 40 / 40 40. What is a proteome? None of the above The set of amino acids in a polypeptide All of the proteins expressed by one type of cell under one set of conditions The sequence of amino acids connected through peptide bonds The three-dimensional structure of a protein Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback