DAT Biology Practice Test 5# Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #5 1 / 40 1. What does the concept of "inclusive fitness" refer to? Sacrifices made for relatives Maximizing the quality of mates and offspring Grouping together to achieve a goal Abbreviating what food looks like to locate it quickly Maximizing the quantity of offspring 2 / 40 2. In the context of animal behaviors, what does the term "stimulus discrimination" mean? Differentiation between a conditioned stimulus and other similar, but different, non-conditioned stimuli. Learning to associate a behavior with a reward. As a stimulus occurs more often, the behavioral response increases. The behavior of an animal changing speed in random directions in response to environmental conditions. Decreasing behavioral response in response to repetitive, meaningless stimulus. 3 / 40 3. Which of the following correctly represents the type II survivorship curve? Long gestation period, few, large offspring, long time to mature, significant parental investment Abundant, small offspring, mature quickly, no parental investment Organism derives its energy from light and uses CO2 as its primary carbon source Organism derives its energy from inorganic compounds and uses organic compounds as its primary carbon source Survival probability is constant regardless of age 4 / 40 4. What is the type of symbiosis where one organism benefits and the other organism is unaffected? Commensalism Predation Mutualism Parasitism Allelopathy 5 / 40 5. In terms of genetic variation, what does "balanced polymorphism" refer to? The combination of gametes in sexual reproduction The process of outbreeding in a population The presence of multiple copies of alleles in plant species A high mutation rate within a population The maintenance of a variety of phenotypes within a population 6 / 40 6. Which of the following correctly describes the process of capacitation in sperm cells? It is the initial formation of sperm cells in the testes It is the division of a sperm cell into two haploid cells It is the final maturation step for sperm prior to fertilization, triggered by secretions in the uterine wall It is the process by which the sperm cell fuses with the egg cell during fertilization It is the process by which the sperm cell enters the zona pellucida of the egg cell 7 / 40 7. In the context of birth control pills, how does the release of synthetic estrogen and progesterone prevent pregnancy? By promoting the development of follicles in the ovary. By causing a rapid LH spike leading to ovulation. By causing uterine contractions which propel sperm. By inhibiting GnRH production during the menstrual cycle through negative feedback. By stimulating the formation of corpus luteum. 8 / 40 8. What are the three possible shapes for epithelial cells? Cuboidal, hexagonal, and pyramidal Rhomboidal, squamous, and cuboidal Squamous, cuboidal, and columnar Columnar, cuboidal, and spherical Cuboidal, squamous, and trapezoidal 9 / 40 9. What are the three layers of the integumentary system? Dermis, endodermis, and hypodermis Epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis Epidermis, endodermis, and hypodermis Epidermis, mesodermis, and endodermis Epidermis, dermis, and endothelium 10 / 40 10. Which hormone is produced by the adrenal cortex and increases salt and water reabsorption and potassium secretion in the distal tubules and collecting ducts? Angiotensin II Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) Renin Aldosterone 11 / 40 11. What is a key indicator of the health of the microbiome in the large intestine? The level of glucose The level of urea The level of glycogen Bile acid metabolism The number of erythrocytes 12 / 40 12. What is the primary function of bile in the digestive process? It emulsifies fats, aiding in their absorption. It breaks down proteins into amino acids. It stimulates the secretion of digestive enzymes from the pancreas. It facilitates mechanical digestion by helping to churn food in the stomach. It neutralizes stomach acid to prevent damage to the small intestine. 13 / 40 13. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the parafollicular cells in the thyroid gland? Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Calcitonin Thyroxine (T4) Triiodothyronine (T3) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 14 / 40 14. Which of the following hormones are derived from cholesterol? Amino-acid derived hormones None of the above All of the above Steroid hormones Peptide hormones 15 / 40 15. Which of the following statements is true regarding fibrous connective tissue? It is maintained and repaired by osteoblasts. It is located between cortical and cancellous bone. It has a matrix made up of fibers. It is vascularized and innervated. It provides support and stability to joints. 16 / 40 16. What structure quickens the propagation of action potentials on the muscle fiber? Acetylcholine Sarcomeres Myofibrils T-tubules Troponin 17 / 40 17. What is the purpose of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle fibers? To contract and shorten the sarcomeres. To hold the myofilaments in place within the sarcomeres. To allow ion exchange and electrical impulse propagation. To produce graded potentials on the muscle fibers. To release stored calcium ions into the sarcoplasm. 18 / 40 18. Which of the following is NOT a component of the limbic system? Amygdala Medulla oblongata Thalamus Hypothalamus Hippocampus 19 / 40 19. Which glial cell type produces cerebrospinal fluid? Microglial cells Schwann cells Astrocytes Oligodendrocytes Ependymal cells 20 / 40 20. What is the function of memory B cells? To stimulate innate immunity To present antigens to T cells To recognize self proteins To produce and release antibodies To directly kill infected cells 21 / 40 21. Which of the following is true about myoglobin? It is a single peptide with one heme cofactor It has a lower affinity for oxygen than oxyhemoglobin It transports most of the oxygen traveling in the blood. It is found within erythrocytes It undergoes cooperativity 22 / 40 22. What is the minimum amount of air that needs to be present in the lungs to prevent collapse? Residual volume Functional residual capacity. Inspiratory reserve volume Tidal volume Expiratory reserve volume 23 / 40 23. What is the role of oncotic pressure in the capillaries? Brings fluid back into the capillaries at the venule end Collects interstitial fluid, bacteria, fats, and proteins Pushes fluid out of the capillaries on the arterial end Filters lymph through lymph nodes Propels lymph via peristalsis 24 / 40 24. Which of the following is true regarding invertebrate circulation? Earthworms have an open circulatory system Arthropods have a closed circulatory system All invertebrates use a simple diffusion system to distribute nutrients Echinoderms use an open circulatory system All of the above are false 25 / 40 25. Which of the following is true about gymnosperms? Their seeds are protected. Their sperm is dispersed in seeds by wind. They have independent gametophyte and sporophyte life-cycles. They are the most abundant type of plant. They have flagellated sperm. 26 / 40 26. Which characteristic is unique to the phylum Mollusca? Segmentation Tube feet Cnidocytes Metamorphosis Radula 27 / 40 27. What is the primary feature that distinguishes the three domains of life: Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya? Their ability to produce spores Their ability to reproduce Their size Their cell structure Their metabolic processes 28 / 40 28. What is the primary goal of fluorescence recovery after photobleaching (FRAP)? To increase the concentration of solute in a solution. To identify the localization of proteins of interest. To measure the movement of biomolecules in a live cell. To measure the fluorescence lifetime of a cell. To identify the function of a gene. 29 / 40 29. What type of microscopy is capable of visualizing fluorescent objects and reduces artifacts by focusing a beam of UV light onto the sample? Phase contrast microscopy Confocal laser scanning microscopy Electron microscopy Fluorescence microscopy Optical microscopy 30 / 40 30. What is a haplotype? A group of genes that are inherited separately because they are located on different chromosomes. A group of genes that are inherited from both parents. A group of genes that are not inherited. A group of genes that are usually inherited together because they are located in close proximity to each other. A group of genes that are inherited from one parent. 31 / 40 31. What is the role of telomerase in DNA replication? It binds to uncoiled DNA strands to prevent reattachment. It unzips the DNA strands. It replaces RNA primers with DNA. It adds RNA primers at the origin of replication. It extends telomeres to prevent DNA loss. 32 / 40 32. In prokaryotic transcription, how does a termination sequence end the transcription process in Rho independent termination? It binds to the promoter region, stopping transcription. It causes supercoiling in the DNA strand. It binds to the RNA polymerase, causing it to fall off. It adds a sigma factor to the RNA polymerase. The RNA transcript folds into a hairpin loop, causing the RNA polymerase to fall off. 33 / 40 33. How many pairs of autosomes are present in the human body? 23 pairs 1 pair 22 pairs 46 pairs 2 pairs 34 / 40 34. What is the term for the division of the nucleus? Karyokinesis Cytokinesis Dyads Ploidy Centromeres 35 / 40 35. What is the main difference between heterotrophs and autotrophs? Heterotrophs use photosynthesis, while autotrophs use cellular respiration. Autotrophs use cellular respiration, while heterotrophs use photosynthesis. Autotrophs can make their own food, while heterotrophs must get energy from the food they eat. There is no difference between heterotrophs and autotrophs. Heterotrophs can make their own food, while autotrophs get energy from the food they eat. 36 / 40 36. Where does beta-oxidation of free fatty acids occur in eukaryotic cells? Cytosol Golgi apparatus Nucleus Endoplasmic reticulum Mitochondrial matrix 37 / 40 37. Which of the following is not evidence supporting the endosymbiotic theory? Mitochondria and chloroplasts have the same number of ribosomes. Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain a double membrane. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar in size. Mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce independently of the host cell. Mitochondria and chloroplasts possess their own circular DNA. 38 / 40 38. Which organelle is responsible for synthesizing lipids, producing steroid hormones, and detoxifying cells? Peroxisomes Lysosomes Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Rough endoplasmic reticulum Mitochondria 39 / 40 39. Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of cholesterol in the cell membrane? It is used by cells to recognize other cells. It transmits signals all the way through the lipid bilayer. It makes the membrane less fluid at high temperatures and less fluid at low temperatures. It binds to receptors and activates a target function. It attaches cells to other cells. 40 / 40 40. Which type of bond is formed between two monosaccharides to form a disaccharide? Intermolecular bond Ionic bond Covalent bond Intramolecular bond Hydrogen bond Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback
