DAT Biology Practice Test 3# 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #3 1 / 40 1. Which type of mating involves mating once in a lifetime and producing multiple offspring without parental care? Polygyny Polygamy Monogamy Semelparity Polyandry 2 / 40 2. Which of the following behaviors is most accurately classified as a Fixed Action Pattern? An animal responding to a stimulus more frequently as the stimulus occurs more often. Ducklings following a moving object, believing it to be their mother. A bird migrating in response to seasonal changes. A flatworm increasing its speed when exposed to light. A goose rolling an egg back into its nest. 3 / 40 3. What happens to the energy stored in a trophic level as it is transferred to the next trophic level? Approximately 90% of it is converted to organic tissue in the next trophic level. It is equally distributed among all the organisms in the next trophic level. Only about 10% of it is converted to organic tissue in the next trophic level. All of it is transferred to the next trophic level. All of it is lost as heat. 4 / 40 4. What does a cladogram represent? The accumulation of small intermediary changes in a species The genetic variation within a population The genetic drift in a population The inferred evolutionary relationships among various biological species The inherited traits of a species 5 / 40 5. Which of the following is not an example of prezygotic isolation? Habitat Isolation Behavioral Isolation Mechanical Isolation Temporal Isolation Hybrid Sterility 6 / 40 6. Regarding stem cells, which of the following is the correct sequence from most potent to least potent? Pluripotent, Totipotent, Multipotent Totipotent, Pluripotent, Multipotent Multipotent, Totipotent, Pluripotent Pluripotent, Multipotent, Totipotent Multipotent, Pluripotent, Totipotent 7 / 40 7. Which of the following accurately describes binary fission? DNA is replicated and migrates to opposite ends of the cell, and then the cell separates into two. An unfertilized egg develops into a viable organism. A bud forms on the organism, and DNA is replicated and deposited into the bud. A piece of the organism breaks off, and it can regenerate the broken piece. Germ cells produce gametes via meiosis. 8 / 40 8. Which layer of the epidermis is important for strength and immunity? Granulosum Spinosum Basale Corneum Lucidum 9 / 40 9. What is the primary function of Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) when released by atrial cells? It stimulates additional aldosterone release from the adrenal gland cortex. It causes aquaporins to insert into the collecting duct of the nephron. It reduces blood volume and blood pressure. It increases Na+ reabsorption from the proximal tubule. It is a potent systemic vasoconstrictor. 10 / 40 10. What is the primary force driving filtration in Bowman’s capsule? Passive transport Gravity Osmotic pressure Hydrostatic pressure from the blood Active transport 11 / 40 11. What does the liver do when glycogen stores are depleted? Hormone synthesis Gluconeogenesis Detoxification Protein synthesis Glycogenesis 12 / 40 12. Which of the following best describes the role of pseudopodia in amoebas? They form the amoeba's cell wall. They allow the amoeba to communicate with other cells. They are temporary protrusions used for cell movement and feeding. They are used for extracellular digestion. They aid in the amoeba's movement. 13 / 40 13. What does the hormone aldosterone function to do? Increase blood glucose levels Decrease blood glucose levels Regulate the menstrual cycle Decrease blood volume and blood pressure Increase blood volume and blood pressure 14 / 40 14. Which of the following cell types is responsible for bone resorption during bone remodeling? Osteoclasts Osteocytes Osteoblasts Osteoprogenitors Monocytes 15 / 40 15. What is the function of cancellous bone? To store fat in the medullary cavity To synthesize blood cells To provide protection for the organs To support the weight of the body To soak up red bone marrow via a web of trabeculae 16 / 40 16. Which of the following types of motor units is used for powerful movements? Large motor units with a low ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers Small motor units with a low ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers Small motor units with a high ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers None of the above Large motor units with a high ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers 17 / 40 17. Which of the following statements is true regarding the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction? Myofilaments slide past each other to shorten sarcomeres. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions into the sarcomere through ligand-gated calcium channels. Troponin removes tropomyosin from the actin-binding sites, allowing actin and myosin to bind. Actin and myosin filaments contract independently of each other. Graded potentials are produced by the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels. 18 / 40 18. Which neurotransmitter is associated with reward, pleasure, and addiction? Serotonin Dopamine GABA Norepinephrine Acetylcholine 19 / 40 19. What is the function of platelets in the innate immune system? To produce histamine To regulate macrophages and dendritic cells To neutralize pathogens that have entered the body To attack virally-infected cells To kill parasites 20 / 40 20. Which type of leukocyte makes up over half of all leukocytes? Basophils T cells Neutrophils Eosinophils B cells 21 / 40 21. Which of the following is NOT a reason for a left-shifted oxygen dissociation curve? Increased pH All of the above are reasons for a left-shifted curve Low partial pressure of carbon dioxide Increased body temperature Fetal hemoglobin 22 / 40 22. Which of the following is true about respiration in Cnidaria? They use slimy mucus to facilitate the transport of oxygen into their open circulatory system. Gas exchange happens mainly through the tracheal system They have a closed circulatory system They have gills They use simple diffusion 23 / 40 23. Which type of blood can receive blood from any donor? Type B Type A Type O None of the above Type AB 24 / 40 24. What is the function of the Casparian strip in the roots of plants? It prevents the growth of roots. It aids in photosynthesis. It facilitates the movement of water from soil into the roots. It increases the surface area of roots for greater nutrient and water uptake. It forces water coming from the cell walls into the cytoplasm for filtering. 25 / 40 25. Which type of cell in the xylem allows for water transport through pits in their tapered ends? Tracheids Parenchyma cells Sieve cells Vessel elements Companion cells 26 / 40 26. Which of the following chordates have a two-chambered heart? Fish (Cartilaginous) Birds Mammalia (Placental) Reptilia Mammalia (Monotremes) 27 / 40 27. What is the primary distinguishing feature between prokaryotes and eukaryotes? Presence of ribosomes Cell wall Ability to produce endospores Membrane-bound organelles The process of DNA replication 28 / 40 28. What type of blotting is used to identify fragments of known RNA? DNA Northern blotting Southern blotting Eastern blotting Western blotting 29 / 40 29. What does the term "heterozygous" mean? Only one allele is present One dominant allele and one recessive allele in a homologous pair Two different copies of the same chromosome The same allele in both homologs One copy of the gene is lost or nonfunctional 30 / 40 30. What is the role of proto-oncogenes in cancer development? They inhibit phosphorylation activity They suppress cancerous growth They become oncogenes due to gain-of-function mutations They cause cancer due to loss-of-function mutations They prevent cells from becoming cancerous 31 / 40 31. Which of the following is not a potential outcome of base substitutions (point mutations) in DNA? All are potential outcomes of base substitutions. Missense mutations Nonsense mutations Silent mutations Frameshift mutations 32 / 40 32. How does acetylation of histones affect gene transcription? It decreases transcription by loosening DNA-histone attractions. It does not affect gene transcription. It randomly increases or decreases transcription. It increases transcription by tightening DNA-histone attractions. It increases transcription by relaxing DNA-histone attractions. 33 / 40 33. What distinguishes meiosis I from meiosis II? Meiosis I is a reductional division, while meiosis II is an equational division. Meiosis I results in four daughter cells, while meiosis II results in two daughter cells. Meiosis I only occurs in animals, while meiosis II only occurs in plants. Meiosis I involves separation of sister chromatids, while meiosis II involves separation of homologous chromosomes. Meiosis I begins with a haploid cell, while meiosis II begins with a diploid cell. 34 / 40 34. What is the primary function of RuBisCo in the process of photosynthesis? It facilitates the fixation of carbon dioxide into RuBP. It converts oxygen into carbon dioxide. It helps in the creation of ATP. It aids in the process of photolysis. It helps in the transportation of water in the plant. 35 / 40 35. What is the main difference between C4 photosynthesis and CAM photosynthesis? C4 photosynthesis is not used by any plants, while CAM photosynthesis is used by all plants. C4 photosynthesis and CAM photosynthesis are the same process. C4 photosynthesis uses temporal isolation of carbon dioxide, while CAM photosynthesis uses spatial isolation. C4 photosynthesis uses spatial isolation of carbon dioxide, while CAM photosynthesis uses temporal isolation. C4 photosynthesis occurs only in hot environments, while CAM photosynthesis occurs in all environments. 36 / 40 36. Alcohol fermentation includes an extra step compared to lactic acid fermentation. What does this step involve? The reduction of pyruvate into acetaldehyde The oxidation of pyruvate into lactic acid The decarboxylation of pyruvate into acetaldehyde The conversion of acetaldehyde into ethanol The conversion of NADH to NAD+ 37 / 40 37. What is the key difference between catabolic and anabolic processes in an organism's metabolism? Catabolic processes involve breaking down larger molecules for energy while anabolic processes involve using energy to build larger macromolecules. Catabolic processes consume energy while anabolic processes produce energy. Catabolic processes involve the synthesis of ATP while anabolic processes involve the breakdown of ATP. Anabolic processes involve breaking down larger molecules for energy while catabolic processes involve using energy to build larger macromolecules. Anabolic processes consume oxygen while catabolic processes do not require oxygen. 38 / 40 38. Which of the following best describes the role of the sodium-potassium pump in the cell? It is a type of facilitated transport that uses a channel protein to allow ions to flow down their concentration gradient. It is a type of active transport that uses ATP hydrolysis to pump molecules against their concentration gradient. It is a type of simple diffusion that allows small, uncharged molecules to flow down their concentration gradient. It is a type of passive diffusion that uses a carrier protein to bring molecules down their concentration gradient. It is a type of secondary active transport that uses the energy released when other molecules flow down their concentration gradient. 39 / 40 39. Which of the following statements is NOT part of modern cell theory? All lifeforms have one or more cells. Genetic information is stored and passed down through DNA. An organism’s activity is dependent on the total activity of its independent cells. All cells come from non-living matter. The cell is the basic structural, functional, and organizational unit of life. 40 / 40 40. What is the difference between amylose and amylopectin? Amylose contains glucose and fructose, while amylopectin contains only glucose Amylose is branched while amylopectin is linear Amylose is a monosaccharide while amylopectin is a disaccharide Amylose is linear while amylopectin is branched There is no difference between amylose and amylopectin Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? 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