DAT Biology Practice Test 3# 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #3 1 / 40 1. Which type of mating involves mating once in a lifetime and producing multiple offspring without parental care? Polyandry Polygyny Semelparity Monogamy Polygamy 2 / 40 2. Which of the following behaviors is most accurately classified as a Fixed Action Pattern? A goose rolling an egg back into its nest. An animal responding to a stimulus more frequently as the stimulus occurs more often. A bird migrating in response to seasonal changes. A flatworm increasing its speed when exposed to light. Ducklings following a moving object, believing it to be their mother. 3 / 40 3. What happens to the energy stored in a trophic level as it is transferred to the next trophic level? All of it is transferred to the next trophic level. Only about 10% of it is converted to organic tissue in the next trophic level. Approximately 90% of it is converted to organic tissue in the next trophic level. It is equally distributed among all the organisms in the next trophic level. All of it is lost as heat. 4 / 40 4. What does a cladogram represent? The genetic drift in a population The genetic variation within a population The accumulation of small intermediary changes in a species The inherited traits of a species The inferred evolutionary relationships among various biological species 5 / 40 5. Which of the following is not an example of prezygotic isolation? Mechanical Isolation Temporal Isolation Hybrid Sterility Habitat Isolation Behavioral Isolation 6 / 40 6. Regarding stem cells, which of the following is the correct sequence from most potent to least potent? Pluripotent, Totipotent, Multipotent Pluripotent, Multipotent, Totipotent Multipotent, Pluripotent, Totipotent Multipotent, Totipotent, Pluripotent Totipotent, Pluripotent, Multipotent 7 / 40 7. Which of the following accurately describes binary fission? An unfertilized egg develops into a viable organism. A piece of the organism breaks off, and it can regenerate the broken piece. Germ cells produce gametes via meiosis. A bud forms on the organism, and DNA is replicated and deposited into the bud. DNA is replicated and migrates to opposite ends of the cell, and then the cell separates into two. 8 / 40 8. Which layer of the epidermis is important for strength and immunity? Basale Corneum Granulosum Spinosum Lucidum 9 / 40 9. What is the primary function of Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) when released by atrial cells? It causes aquaporins to insert into the collecting duct of the nephron. It reduces blood volume and blood pressure. It is a potent systemic vasoconstrictor. It stimulates additional aldosterone release from the adrenal gland cortex. It increases Na+ reabsorption from the proximal tubule. 10 / 40 10. What is the primary force driving filtration in Bowman’s capsule? Active transport Gravity Hydrostatic pressure from the blood Passive transport Osmotic pressure 11 / 40 11. What does the liver do when glycogen stores are depleted? Detoxification Protein synthesis Hormone synthesis Gluconeogenesis Glycogenesis 12 / 40 12. Which of the following best describes the role of pseudopodia in amoebas? They aid in the amoeba's movement. They allow the amoeba to communicate with other cells. They form the amoeba's cell wall. They are temporary protrusions used for cell movement and feeding. They are used for extracellular digestion. 13 / 40 13. What does the hormone aldosterone function to do? Decrease blood glucose levels Decrease blood volume and blood pressure Increase blood volume and blood pressure Regulate the menstrual cycle Increase blood glucose levels 14 / 40 14. Which of the following cell types is responsible for bone resorption during bone remodeling? Osteoprogenitors Osteoclasts Osteocytes Osteoblasts Monocytes 15 / 40 15. What is the function of cancellous bone? To synthesize blood cells To store fat in the medullary cavity To soak up red bone marrow via a web of trabeculae To support the weight of the body To provide protection for the organs 16 / 40 16. Which of the following types of motor units is used for powerful movements? Large motor units with a low ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers Large motor units with a high ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers None of the above Small motor units with a low ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers Small motor units with a high ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers 17 / 40 17. Which of the following statements is true regarding the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction? Actin and myosin filaments contract independently of each other. Troponin removes tropomyosin from the actin-binding sites, allowing actin and myosin to bind. Myofilaments slide past each other to shorten sarcomeres. Graded potentials are produced by the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions into the sarcomere through ligand-gated calcium channels. 18 / 40 18. Which neurotransmitter is associated with reward, pleasure, and addiction? Norepinephrine Dopamine Serotonin GABA Acetylcholine 19 / 40 19. What is the function of platelets in the innate immune system? To regulate macrophages and dendritic cells To attack virally-infected cells To produce histamine To kill parasites To neutralize pathogens that have entered the body 20 / 40 20. Which type of leukocyte makes up over half of all leukocytes? B cells Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils T cells 21 / 40 21. Which of the following is NOT a reason for a left-shifted oxygen dissociation curve? Increased body temperature All of the above are reasons for a left-shifted curve Increased pH Low partial pressure of carbon dioxide Fetal hemoglobin 22 / 40 22. Which of the following is true about respiration in Cnidaria? They have gills They have a closed circulatory system Gas exchange happens mainly through the tracheal system They use slimy mucus to facilitate the transport of oxygen into their open circulatory system. They use simple diffusion 23 / 40 23. Which type of blood can receive blood from any donor? Type O Type AB None of the above Type A Type B 24 / 40 24. What is the function of the Casparian strip in the roots of plants? It increases the surface area of roots for greater nutrient and water uptake. It aids in photosynthesis. It forces water coming from the cell walls into the cytoplasm for filtering. It prevents the growth of roots. It facilitates the movement of water from soil into the roots. 25 / 40 25. Which type of cell in the xylem allows for water transport through pits in their tapered ends? Vessel elements Companion cells Sieve cells Parenchyma cells Tracheids 26 / 40 26. Which of the following chordates have a two-chambered heart? Mammalia (Placental) Birds Fish (Cartilaginous) Reptilia Mammalia (Monotremes) 27 / 40 27. What is the primary distinguishing feature between prokaryotes and eukaryotes? Cell wall Membrane-bound organelles Presence of ribosomes The process of DNA replication Ability to produce endospores 28 / 40 28. What type of blotting is used to identify fragments of known RNA? Southern blotting DNA Eastern blotting Western blotting Northern blotting 29 / 40 29. What does the term "heterozygous" mean? One dominant allele and one recessive allele in a homologous pair Only one allele is present One copy of the gene is lost or nonfunctional The same allele in both homologs Two different copies of the same chromosome 30 / 40 30. What is the role of proto-oncogenes in cancer development? They inhibit phosphorylation activity They suppress cancerous growth They become oncogenes due to gain-of-function mutations They prevent cells from becoming cancerous They cause cancer due to loss-of-function mutations 31 / 40 31. Which of the following is not a potential outcome of base substitutions (point mutations) in DNA? Missense mutations Frameshift mutations All are potential outcomes of base substitutions. Silent mutations Nonsense mutations 32 / 40 32. How does acetylation of histones affect gene transcription? It does not affect gene transcription. It increases transcription by relaxing DNA-histone attractions. It randomly increases or decreases transcription. It increases transcription by tightening DNA-histone attractions. It decreases transcription by loosening DNA-histone attractions. 33 / 40 33. What distinguishes meiosis I from meiosis II? Meiosis I only occurs in animals, while meiosis II only occurs in plants. Meiosis I results in four daughter cells, while meiosis II results in two daughter cells. Meiosis I begins with a haploid cell, while meiosis II begins with a diploid cell. Meiosis I involves separation of sister chromatids, while meiosis II involves separation of homologous chromosomes. Meiosis I is a reductional division, while meiosis II is an equational division. 34 / 40 34. What is the primary function of RuBisCo in the process of photosynthesis? It aids in the process of photolysis. It helps in the creation of ATP. It helps in the transportation of water in the plant. It facilitates the fixation of carbon dioxide into RuBP. It converts oxygen into carbon dioxide. 35 / 40 35. What is the main difference between C4 photosynthesis and CAM photosynthesis? C4 photosynthesis and CAM photosynthesis are the same process. C4 photosynthesis occurs only in hot environments, while CAM photosynthesis occurs in all environments. C4 photosynthesis is not used by any plants, while CAM photosynthesis is used by all plants. C4 photosynthesis uses spatial isolation of carbon dioxide, while CAM photosynthesis uses temporal isolation. C4 photosynthesis uses temporal isolation of carbon dioxide, while CAM photosynthesis uses spatial isolation. 36 / 40 36. Alcohol fermentation includes an extra step compared to lactic acid fermentation. What does this step involve? The conversion of NADH to NAD+ The reduction of pyruvate into acetaldehyde The conversion of acetaldehyde into ethanol The decarboxylation of pyruvate into acetaldehyde The oxidation of pyruvate into lactic acid 37 / 40 37. What is the key difference between catabolic and anabolic processes in an organism's metabolism? Catabolic processes involve the synthesis of ATP while anabolic processes involve the breakdown of ATP. Anabolic processes involve breaking down larger molecules for energy while catabolic processes involve using energy to build larger macromolecules. Catabolic processes consume energy while anabolic processes produce energy. Catabolic processes involve breaking down larger molecules for energy while anabolic processes involve using energy to build larger macromolecules. Anabolic processes consume oxygen while catabolic processes do not require oxygen. 38 / 40 38. Which of the following best describes the role of the sodium-potassium pump in the cell? It is a type of facilitated transport that uses a channel protein to allow ions to flow down their concentration gradient. It is a type of secondary active transport that uses the energy released when other molecules flow down their concentration gradient. It is a type of simple diffusion that allows small, uncharged molecules to flow down their concentration gradient. It is a type of passive diffusion that uses a carrier protein to bring molecules down their concentration gradient. It is a type of active transport that uses ATP hydrolysis to pump molecules against their concentration gradient. 39 / 40 39. Which of the following statements is NOT part of modern cell theory? The cell is the basic structural, functional, and organizational unit of life. All lifeforms have one or more cells. Genetic information is stored and passed down through DNA. An organism’s activity is dependent on the total activity of its independent cells. All cells come from non-living matter. 40 / 40 40. What is the difference between amylose and amylopectin? Amylose contains glucose and fructose, while amylopectin contains only glucose Amylose is linear while amylopectin is branched There is no difference between amylose and amylopectin Amylose is a monosaccharide while amylopectin is a disaccharide Amylose is branched while amylopectin is linear Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests
