DAT Biology Practice Test 3# 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #3 1 / 40 1. Which type of mating involves mating once in a lifetime and producing multiple offspring without parental care? Polyandry Polygyny Monogamy Polygamy Semelparity 2 / 40 2. Which of the following behaviors is most accurately classified as a Fixed Action Pattern? An animal responding to a stimulus more frequently as the stimulus occurs more often. A goose rolling an egg back into its nest. Ducklings following a moving object, believing it to be their mother. A flatworm increasing its speed when exposed to light. A bird migrating in response to seasonal changes. 3 / 40 3. What happens to the energy stored in a trophic level as it is transferred to the next trophic level? It is equally distributed among all the organisms in the next trophic level. All of it is lost as heat. Approximately 90% of it is converted to organic tissue in the next trophic level. All of it is transferred to the next trophic level. Only about 10% of it is converted to organic tissue in the next trophic level. 4 / 40 4. What does a cladogram represent? The inherited traits of a species The genetic variation within a population The genetic drift in a population The inferred evolutionary relationships among various biological species The accumulation of small intermediary changes in a species 5 / 40 5. Which of the following is not an example of prezygotic isolation? Hybrid Sterility Habitat Isolation Mechanical Isolation Behavioral Isolation Temporal Isolation 6 / 40 6. Regarding stem cells, which of the following is the correct sequence from most potent to least potent? Pluripotent, Multipotent, Totipotent Multipotent, Pluripotent, Totipotent Totipotent, Pluripotent, Multipotent Pluripotent, Totipotent, Multipotent Multipotent, Totipotent, Pluripotent 7 / 40 7. Which of the following accurately describes binary fission? A piece of the organism breaks off, and it can regenerate the broken piece. Germ cells produce gametes via meiosis. An unfertilized egg develops into a viable organism. A bud forms on the organism, and DNA is replicated and deposited into the bud. DNA is replicated and migrates to opposite ends of the cell, and then the cell separates into two. 8 / 40 8. Which layer of the epidermis is important for strength and immunity? Lucidum Spinosum Basale Granulosum Corneum 9 / 40 9. What is the primary function of Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) when released by atrial cells? It causes aquaporins to insert into the collecting duct of the nephron. It stimulates additional aldosterone release from the adrenal gland cortex. It increases Na+ reabsorption from the proximal tubule. It reduces blood volume and blood pressure. It is a potent systemic vasoconstrictor. 10 / 40 10. What is the primary force driving filtration in Bowman’s capsule? Gravity Active transport Passive transport Hydrostatic pressure from the blood Osmotic pressure 11 / 40 11. What does the liver do when glycogen stores are depleted? Hormone synthesis Gluconeogenesis Glycogenesis Detoxification Protein synthesis 12 / 40 12. Which of the following best describes the role of pseudopodia in amoebas? They aid in the amoeba's movement. They form the amoeba's cell wall. They allow the amoeba to communicate with other cells. They are temporary protrusions used for cell movement and feeding. They are used for extracellular digestion. 13 / 40 13. What does the hormone aldosterone function to do? Regulate the menstrual cycle Decrease blood glucose levels Increase blood volume and blood pressure Increase blood glucose levels Decrease blood volume and blood pressure 14 / 40 14. Which of the following cell types is responsible for bone resorption during bone remodeling? Osteoprogenitors Osteoblasts Monocytes Osteoclasts Osteocytes 15 / 40 15. What is the function of cancellous bone? To support the weight of the body To provide protection for the organs To soak up red bone marrow via a web of trabeculae To store fat in the medullary cavity To synthesize blood cells 16 / 40 16. Which of the following types of motor units is used for powerful movements? None of the above Small motor units with a high ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers Large motor units with a high ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers Small motor units with a low ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers Large motor units with a low ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers 17 / 40 17. Which of the following statements is true regarding the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction? Troponin removes tropomyosin from the actin-binding sites, allowing actin and myosin to bind. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions into the sarcomere through ligand-gated calcium channels. Actin and myosin filaments contract independently of each other. Myofilaments slide past each other to shorten sarcomeres. Graded potentials are produced by the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels. 18 / 40 18. Which neurotransmitter is associated with reward, pleasure, and addiction? Serotonin Dopamine GABA Acetylcholine Norepinephrine 19 / 40 19. What is the function of platelets in the innate immune system? To regulate macrophages and dendritic cells To neutralize pathogens that have entered the body To attack virally-infected cells To produce histamine To kill parasites 20 / 40 20. Which type of leukocyte makes up over half of all leukocytes? T cells Neutrophils Basophils Eosinophils B cells 21 / 40 21. Which of the following is NOT a reason for a left-shifted oxygen dissociation curve? Fetal hemoglobin Increased body temperature Low partial pressure of carbon dioxide Increased pH All of the above are reasons for a left-shifted curve 22 / 40 22. Which of the following is true about respiration in Cnidaria? Gas exchange happens mainly through the tracheal system They use slimy mucus to facilitate the transport of oxygen into their open circulatory system. They use simple diffusion They have gills They have a closed circulatory system 23 / 40 23. Which type of blood can receive blood from any donor? Type A Type B Type AB Type O None of the above 24 / 40 24. What is the function of the Casparian strip in the roots of plants? It prevents the growth of roots. It facilitates the movement of water from soil into the roots. It increases the surface area of roots for greater nutrient and water uptake. It forces water coming from the cell walls into the cytoplasm for filtering. It aids in photosynthesis. 25 / 40 25. Which type of cell in the xylem allows for water transport through pits in their tapered ends? Companion cells Tracheids Parenchyma cells Sieve cells Vessel elements 26 / 40 26. Which of the following chordates have a two-chambered heart? Reptilia Fish (Cartilaginous) Mammalia (Monotremes) Mammalia (Placental) Birds 27 / 40 27. What is the primary distinguishing feature between prokaryotes and eukaryotes? The process of DNA replication Ability to produce endospores Presence of ribosomes Cell wall Membrane-bound organelles 28 / 40 28. What type of blotting is used to identify fragments of known RNA? Eastern blotting Northern blotting DNA Southern blotting Western blotting 29 / 40 29. What does the term "heterozygous" mean? One copy of the gene is lost or nonfunctional Only one allele is present One dominant allele and one recessive allele in a homologous pair Two different copies of the same chromosome The same allele in both homologs 30 / 40 30. What is the role of proto-oncogenes in cancer development? They inhibit phosphorylation activity They suppress cancerous growth They become oncogenes due to gain-of-function mutations They prevent cells from becoming cancerous They cause cancer due to loss-of-function mutations 31 / 40 31. Which of the following is not a potential outcome of base substitutions (point mutations) in DNA? Frameshift mutations All are potential outcomes of base substitutions. Missense mutations Nonsense mutations Silent mutations 32 / 40 32. How does acetylation of histones affect gene transcription? It randomly increases or decreases transcription. It decreases transcription by loosening DNA-histone attractions. It increases transcription by relaxing DNA-histone attractions. It increases transcription by tightening DNA-histone attractions. It does not affect gene transcription. 33 / 40 33. What distinguishes meiosis I from meiosis II? Meiosis I results in four daughter cells, while meiosis II results in two daughter cells. Meiosis I is a reductional division, while meiosis II is an equational division. Meiosis I only occurs in animals, while meiosis II only occurs in plants. Meiosis I involves separation of sister chromatids, while meiosis II involves separation of homologous chromosomes. Meiosis I begins with a haploid cell, while meiosis II begins with a diploid cell. 34 / 40 34. What is the primary function of RuBisCo in the process of photosynthesis? It helps in the transportation of water in the plant. It helps in the creation of ATP. It converts oxygen into carbon dioxide. It aids in the process of photolysis. It facilitates the fixation of carbon dioxide into RuBP. 35 / 40 35. What is the main difference between C4 photosynthesis and CAM photosynthesis? C4 photosynthesis and CAM photosynthesis are the same process. C4 photosynthesis occurs only in hot environments, while CAM photosynthesis occurs in all environments. C4 photosynthesis uses temporal isolation of carbon dioxide, while CAM photosynthesis uses spatial isolation. C4 photosynthesis is not used by any plants, while CAM photosynthesis is used by all plants. C4 photosynthesis uses spatial isolation of carbon dioxide, while CAM photosynthesis uses temporal isolation. 36 / 40 36. Alcohol fermentation includes an extra step compared to lactic acid fermentation. What does this step involve? The reduction of pyruvate into acetaldehyde The conversion of NADH to NAD+ The conversion of acetaldehyde into ethanol The oxidation of pyruvate into lactic acid The decarboxylation of pyruvate into acetaldehyde 37 / 40 37. What is the key difference between catabolic and anabolic processes in an organism's metabolism? Catabolic processes involve the synthesis of ATP while anabolic processes involve the breakdown of ATP. Anabolic processes involve breaking down larger molecules for energy while catabolic processes involve using energy to build larger macromolecules. Anabolic processes consume oxygen while catabolic processes do not require oxygen. Catabolic processes involve breaking down larger molecules for energy while anabolic processes involve using energy to build larger macromolecules. Catabolic processes consume energy while anabolic processes produce energy. 38 / 40 38. Which of the following best describes the role of the sodium-potassium pump in the cell? It is a type of active transport that uses ATP hydrolysis to pump molecules against their concentration gradient. It is a type of facilitated transport that uses a channel protein to allow ions to flow down their concentration gradient. It is a type of secondary active transport that uses the energy released when other molecules flow down their concentration gradient. It is a type of simple diffusion that allows small, uncharged molecules to flow down their concentration gradient. It is a type of passive diffusion that uses a carrier protein to bring molecules down their concentration gradient. 39 / 40 39. Which of the following statements is NOT part of modern cell theory? The cell is the basic structural, functional, and organizational unit of life. All cells come from non-living matter. All lifeforms have one or more cells. An organism’s activity is dependent on the total activity of its independent cells. Genetic information is stored and passed down through DNA. 40 / 40 40. What is the difference between amylose and amylopectin? Amylose is a monosaccharide while amylopectin is a disaccharide Amylose is linear while amylopectin is branched Amylose contains glucose and fructose, while amylopectin contains only glucose There is no difference between amylose and amylopectin Amylose is branched while amylopectin is linear Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests
