DAT Biology Practice Test 2# Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #2 1 / 40 1. What is the term for the behavior used to protect an animal's territory or safe space? Search images Territoriality Agonistic behavior Sexual selection Altruistic behavior 2 / 40 2. Who are the primary consumers in an ecosystem? Organisms that generate their own food through photosynthesis. Carnivores that prey on herbivores. Organisms at the top of the food chain, preying on secondary consumers. Organisms just above the producers in the food chain, often herbivores. Organisms that consume dead or decaying organic material. 3 / 40 3. What role do decomposers play in an ecosystem? They prey on two species simultaneously. They eat other consumers. They compete with other species for mutual resources. They undergo photosynthesis to generate energy. They break down and recycle dead plant or animal material. 4 / 40 4. What does "anagenesis" describe in evolutionary biology? The process of two species imparting selective pressure on each other The process of unrelated species adapting to similar environments The gradual evolution of an interbreeding population without splitting The splitting apart of evolutionary lineages The process of different phenotypes becoming isolated within the same area 5 / 40 5. According to the theory of punctuated equilibrium, how does evolution occur? By short spurts of evolutionary changes during periods of stasis Due to a variety of phenotypes within a population Through continuous adaptation of species to their environments Rapidly during periods of stasis Slowly and gradually via accumulation of small intermediary changes 6 / 40 6. What is the function of the notochord during neurulation? It stimulates ectoderm to thicken, forming the neural plate. It forms the neural tube. It forms the neural crest cells. It differentiates into the Central Nervous System (CNS). It forms the vertebrae and skeletal muscles associated with axial skeleton. 7 / 40 7. Which type of gland is not found in the palms of hands and soles of feet? None of the above Sweat gland Sebaceous gland Apocrine gland Eccrine gland 8 / 40 8. What is the function of the hypodermis? It protects against UV radiation It produces sweat for thermoregulation It is the main site for fat storage It synthesizes vitamin D It generates hair follicles 9 / 40 9. Which of the following best describes the role of renin in the Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System (RAAS)? It stimulates the sympathetic nervous system. It is a potent systemic vasoconstrictor. It is an enzyme that acts on angiotensinogen to activate it to the form angiotensin I. It increases Na+ reabsorption from the proximal tubule. It stimulates additional aldosterone release from the adrenal gland cortex. 10 / 40 10. Where does filtration primarily occur in the nephron? Distal convoluted tubule Proximal convoluted tubule Collecting duct Glomerulus and the Bowman’s capsule Loop of Henle 11 / 40 11. How does the liver handle the dangerous byproduct of protein metabolism, ammonia? It converts ammonia into glycogen It converts ammonia into bilirubin It converts ammonia into urea It converts ammonia into glucose It converts ammonia into albumin 12 / 40 12. In females, which hormone during the menstrual cycle causes ovulation? Estrogen FSH Testosterone Progesterone LH 13 / 40 13. The hormone FSH in males stimulates what? Glucose storage Testosterone production Blood glucose level increase Sperm maturation Fight or flight response 14 / 40 14. Which of the following hormones increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts and depressing osteoblasts? Parathyroid hormone Growth hormone Calcitonin Vitamin D Thyroid hormone 15 / 40 15. What is the function of the epiphyseal plate? To provide protection for the organs To provide support for the body To lengthen the diaphysis through growth and ossification To store fat in the medullary cavity To contain red bone marrow for hematopoiesis 16 / 40 16. Which of the following statements accurately describes the I band? The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only actin filaments are present. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only thin actin filaments are present. The I band is the midpoint of the sarcomere. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where actin and myosin overlap. 17 / 40 17. What type of cells form the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system? Oligodendrocytes Schwann cells Astrocytes Satellite cells Ependymal cells 18 / 40 18. Which neurotransmitter is associated with the "fight or flight" response? GABA Dopamine Norepinephrine Acetylcholine Serotonin 19 / 40 19. Which type of immunity is responsible for the production and release of antibodies? Artificial immunity Cell-mediated immunity Innate immunity Humoral immunity Passive immunity 20 / 40 20. Which type of leukocyte is responsible for the first part of the inflammatory response? B cells Natural killer cells Mast cells Neutrophils T cells 21 / 40 21. Which of the following is NOT a component of the bicarbonate buffering system? Bicarbonate anion Water Carbon dioxide Carbonic acid Hemoglobin 22 / 40 22. What is the primary function of the umbilical vein in fetal circulation? Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta Allows oxygen-poor blood to leave the pulmonary artery Carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta Connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava Carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus 23 / 40 23. Which of the following statements is true about blood clotting? Platelets release thromboplastin to attract more platelets Exposed collagen triggers platelet activation A clot is formed before platelets aggregate Fibrinogen is an active form that forms the clot It is an example of a negative feedback mechanism 24 / 40 24. What is the role of auxins in plant growth? They increase fruit ripening. They are responsible for stem and shoot elongation. They regulate cell differentiation and division. They function during stress and inhibit growth. They cause cell growth and are responsible for plant tropisms. 25 / 40 25. Which type of growth occurs at the apical meristems and leads to vertical growth in plants? Secondary growth Terminal growth Tertiary growth Primary growth Initial growth 26 / 40 26. Which type of chordate lacks a heart in its circulatory system? Tunicates Fish (Bony) Lancelets Reptilia Mammalia (Monotremes) 27 / 40 27. What does the term "competent" mean in the context of bacterial cloning? The bacteria can undergo transformation The bacteria can be easily stained The bacteria are resistant to antibiotics The bacteria can be easily viewed under a microscope The bacteria have a high growth rate 28 / 40 28. What is the process of creating millions of copies of DNA called? CRISPR Gel electrophoresis Karyotyping Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) Bacterial cloning 29 / 40 29. Which term refers to a sequence of DNA that codes for a trait? Mutation Gene Genome Allele Locus 30 / 40 30. What is the difference between incomplete dominance and codominance? Incomplete dominance has an intermediate state, while codominance expresses both alleles Incomplete dominance is when one gene affects the expression of another, while codominance is when one gene is responsible for many traits Incomplete dominance has multiple allele options, while codominance does not Incomplete dominance expresses both alleles, while codominance has an intermediate state Incomplete dominance is when many genes are responsible for one trait, while codominance is when one gene is responsible for many traits 31 / 40 31. What is the primary difference between the action of exonucleases and endonucleases on a polynucleotide chain? Exonucleases add nucleotides to the ends of the chain, while endonucleases add nucleotides to the inside of the chain. Exonucleases aid in transcription, while endonucleases aid in translation. Exonucleases cleave nucleotides from the inside of the chain, while endonucleases cleave from the ends of the chain. Exonucleases cleave nucleotides from the ends of the chain, while endonucleases cleave from the inside of the chain. Exonucleases remove the 5' cap, while endonucleases remove the poly A tail. 32 / 40 32. What happens during the G0 phase of the cell cycle? The cell checks for favorable conditions and, if unfavorable, it halts in the cell cycle. The cell replicates its genome. The cell grows in preparation for cell division. The cell prepares for cell division by checking DNA for any errors after replication. The cell divides into two daughter cells. 33 / 40 33. What happens in the prophase of mitosis? etochore microtubules shorten to pull sister chromatids apart The spindle apparatus guides the chromosomes to the metaphase plate The physical separation of the cytoplasm and cell membrane into two daughter cells Chromosomes have segregated and nuclear membranes reform Chromatin condenses into chromosomes 34 / 40 34. What is the main drawback in the process of C4 photosynthesis? The spatial isolation of carbon dioxide. The production of pyruvate that needs to be shuttled back to mesophyll cells using ATP energy. The production of excess glucose. The production of excess oxygen. The release of CO2 in the mesophyll cells. 35 / 40 35. In which part of the plant cell does the Calvin cycle take place? Chloroplast stroma Mitochondria Cytoplasm Thylakoid membrane Nucleus 36 / 40 36. In the Cori cycle, where does lactate get transported to be converted back into glucose? Muscle cells Red blood cells Mitochondria Liver cells Kidneys 37 / 40 37. What is the term used to describe the process by which a cell's cytoplasm shrinks away from the cell wall due to water loss from being in a hypertonic solution? Hypertrophy Dysplasia Plasmolysis Atrophy Hyperplasia 38 / 40 38. Which factor affects the fluidity of the cell membrane? The presence of carbohydrate chains The size of the hydrocarbon rings in cholesterol The temperature and level of cholesterol and unsaturation of fatty acids The level of membrane protein saturation The presence of adhesion proteins 39 / 40 39. What nitrogenous base is found in RNA instead of thymine? Adenine (A) Cytosine (C) Uracil (U) Thymine (T) Guanine (G) 40 / 40 40. What is the empirical formula of monosaccharides? (CH2O)n C2H4O2 C6H12O6 CH4O2 CHO Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback
