DAT Biology Practice Test 2# Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #2 1 / 40 1. What is the term for the behavior used to protect an animal's territory or safe space? Sexual selection Search images Altruistic behavior Territoriality Agonistic behavior 2 / 40 2. Who are the primary consumers in an ecosystem? Organisms that generate their own food through photosynthesis. Carnivores that prey on herbivores. Organisms just above the producers in the food chain, often herbivores. Organisms at the top of the food chain, preying on secondary consumers. Organisms that consume dead or decaying organic material. 3 / 40 3. What role do decomposers play in an ecosystem? They compete with other species for mutual resources. They break down and recycle dead plant or animal material. They undergo photosynthesis to generate energy. They prey on two species simultaneously. They eat other consumers. 4 / 40 4. What does "anagenesis" describe in evolutionary biology? The gradual evolution of an interbreeding population without splitting The process of different phenotypes becoming isolated within the same area The process of unrelated species adapting to similar environments The process of two species imparting selective pressure on each other The splitting apart of evolutionary lineages 5 / 40 5. According to the theory of punctuated equilibrium, how does evolution occur? Rapidly during periods of stasis By short spurts of evolutionary changes during periods of stasis Through continuous adaptation of species to their environments Slowly and gradually via accumulation of small intermediary changes Due to a variety of phenotypes within a population 6 / 40 6. What is the function of the notochord during neurulation? It forms the vertebrae and skeletal muscles associated with axial skeleton. It forms the neural tube. It forms the neural crest cells. It stimulates ectoderm to thicken, forming the neural plate. It differentiates into the Central Nervous System (CNS). 7 / 40 7. Which type of gland is not found in the palms of hands and soles of feet? None of the above Sebaceous gland Eccrine gland Sweat gland Apocrine gland 8 / 40 8. What is the function of the hypodermis? It produces sweat for thermoregulation It synthesizes vitamin D It is the main site for fat storage It generates hair follicles It protects against UV radiation 9 / 40 9. Which of the following best describes the role of renin in the Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System (RAAS)? It increases Na+ reabsorption from the proximal tubule. It stimulates the sympathetic nervous system. It is an enzyme that acts on angiotensinogen to activate it to the form angiotensin I. It stimulates additional aldosterone release from the adrenal gland cortex. It is a potent systemic vasoconstrictor. 10 / 40 10. Where does filtration primarily occur in the nephron? Proximal convoluted tubule Distal convoluted tubule Loop of Henle Collecting duct Glomerulus and the Bowman’s capsule 11 / 40 11. How does the liver handle the dangerous byproduct of protein metabolism, ammonia? It converts ammonia into albumin It converts ammonia into glucose It converts ammonia into bilirubin It converts ammonia into glycogen It converts ammonia into urea 12 / 40 12. In females, which hormone during the menstrual cycle causes ovulation? Testosterone FSH LH Progesterone Estrogen 13 / 40 13. The hormone FSH in males stimulates what? Blood glucose level increase Sperm maturation Glucose storage Testosterone production Fight or flight response 14 / 40 14. Which of the following hormones increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts and depressing osteoblasts? Calcitonin Growth hormone Thyroid hormone Vitamin D Parathyroid hormone 15 / 40 15. What is the function of the epiphyseal plate? To provide support for the body To lengthen the diaphysis through growth and ossification To provide protection for the organs To contain red bone marrow for hematopoiesis To store fat in the medullary cavity 16 / 40 16. Which of the following statements accurately describes the I band? The I band is the midpoint of the sarcomere. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only thin actin filaments are present. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where actin and myosin overlap. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only actin filaments are present. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present. 17 / 40 17. What type of cells form the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system? Oligodendrocytes Satellite cells Schwann cells Ependymal cells Astrocytes 18 / 40 18. Which neurotransmitter is associated with the "fight or flight" response? Norepinephrine GABA Dopamine Serotonin Acetylcholine 19 / 40 19. Which type of immunity is responsible for the production and release of antibodies? Artificial immunity Innate immunity Passive immunity Humoral immunity Cell-mediated immunity 20 / 40 20. Which type of leukocyte is responsible for the first part of the inflammatory response? Neutrophils Mast cells T cells B cells Natural killer cells 21 / 40 21. Which of the following is NOT a component of the bicarbonate buffering system? Bicarbonate anion Hemoglobin Carbon dioxide Water Carbonic acid 22 / 40 22. What is the primary function of the umbilical vein in fetal circulation? Connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava Carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta Carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta Allows oxygen-poor blood to leave the pulmonary artery 23 / 40 23. Which of the following statements is true about blood clotting? Exposed collagen triggers platelet activation It is an example of a negative feedback mechanism Platelets release thromboplastin to attract more platelets Fibrinogen is an active form that forms the clot A clot is formed before platelets aggregate 24 / 40 24. What is the role of auxins in plant growth? They increase fruit ripening. They are responsible for stem and shoot elongation. They cause cell growth and are responsible for plant tropisms. They function during stress and inhibit growth. They regulate cell differentiation and division. 25 / 40 25. Which type of growth occurs at the apical meristems and leads to vertical growth in plants? Secondary growth Primary growth Terminal growth Initial growth Tertiary growth 26 / 40 26. Which type of chordate lacks a heart in its circulatory system? Tunicates Mammalia (Monotremes) Reptilia Lancelets Fish (Bony) 27 / 40 27. What does the term "competent" mean in the context of bacterial cloning? The bacteria have a high growth rate The bacteria can be easily stained The bacteria are resistant to antibiotics The bacteria can be easily viewed under a microscope The bacteria can undergo transformation 28 / 40 28. What is the process of creating millions of copies of DNA called? Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) Karyotyping Bacterial cloning CRISPR Gel electrophoresis 29 / 40 29. Which term refers to a sequence of DNA that codes for a trait? Locus Mutation Gene Allele Genome 30 / 40 30. What is the difference between incomplete dominance and codominance? Incomplete dominance expresses both alleles, while codominance has an intermediate state Incomplete dominance has an intermediate state, while codominance expresses both alleles Incomplete dominance is when one gene affects the expression of another, while codominance is when one gene is responsible for many traits Incomplete dominance has multiple allele options, while codominance does not Incomplete dominance is when many genes are responsible for one trait, while codominance is when one gene is responsible for many traits 31 / 40 31. What is the primary difference between the action of exonucleases and endonucleases on a polynucleotide chain? Exonucleases cleave nucleotides from the inside of the chain, while endonucleases cleave from the ends of the chain. Exonucleases add nucleotides to the ends of the chain, while endonucleases add nucleotides to the inside of the chain. Exonucleases remove the 5' cap, while endonucleases remove the poly A tail. Exonucleases aid in transcription, while endonucleases aid in translation. Exonucleases cleave nucleotides from the ends of the chain, while endonucleases cleave from the inside of the chain. 32 / 40 32. What happens during the G0 phase of the cell cycle? The cell grows in preparation for cell division. The cell divides into two daughter cells. The cell checks for favorable conditions and, if unfavorable, it halts in the cell cycle. The cell replicates its genome. The cell prepares for cell division by checking DNA for any errors after replication. 33 / 40 33. What happens in the prophase of mitosis? Chromatin condenses into chromosomes etochore microtubules shorten to pull sister chromatids apart The physical separation of the cytoplasm and cell membrane into two daughter cells The spindle apparatus guides the chromosomes to the metaphase plate Chromosomes have segregated and nuclear membranes reform 34 / 40 34. What is the main drawback in the process of C4 photosynthesis? The production of excess glucose. The spatial isolation of carbon dioxide. The release of CO2 in the mesophyll cells. The production of pyruvate that needs to be shuttled back to mesophyll cells using ATP energy. The production of excess oxygen. 35 / 40 35. In which part of the plant cell does the Calvin cycle take place? Mitochondria Chloroplast stroma Nucleus Thylakoid membrane Cytoplasm 36 / 40 36. In the Cori cycle, where does lactate get transported to be converted back into glucose? Kidneys Red blood cells Liver cells Mitochondria Muscle cells 37 / 40 37. What is the term used to describe the process by which a cell's cytoplasm shrinks away from the cell wall due to water loss from being in a hypertonic solution? Hypertrophy Dysplasia Atrophy Hyperplasia Plasmolysis 38 / 40 38. Which factor affects the fluidity of the cell membrane? The presence of adhesion proteins The presence of carbohydrate chains The level of membrane protein saturation The size of the hydrocarbon rings in cholesterol The temperature and level of cholesterol and unsaturation of fatty acids 39 / 40 39. What nitrogenous base is found in RNA instead of thymine? Uracil (U) Adenine (A) Cytosine (C) Guanine (G) Thymine (T) 40 / 40 40. What is the empirical formula of monosaccharides? CHO CH4O2 C2H4O2 (CH2O)n C6H12O6 Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback
