DAT Biology Practice Test 2# Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #2 1 / 40 1. What is the term for the behavior used to protect an animal's territory or safe space? Altruistic behavior Territoriality Sexual selection Agonistic behavior Search images 2 / 40 2. Who are the primary consumers in an ecosystem? Organisms at the top of the food chain, preying on secondary consumers. Carnivores that prey on herbivores. Organisms just above the producers in the food chain, often herbivores. Organisms that generate their own food through photosynthesis. Organisms that consume dead or decaying organic material. 3 / 40 3. What role do decomposers play in an ecosystem? They prey on two species simultaneously. They compete with other species for mutual resources. They undergo photosynthesis to generate energy. They eat other consumers. They break down and recycle dead plant or animal material. 4 / 40 4. What does "anagenesis" describe in evolutionary biology? The process of two species imparting selective pressure on each other The process of unrelated species adapting to similar environments The splitting apart of evolutionary lineages The process of different phenotypes becoming isolated within the same area The gradual evolution of an interbreeding population without splitting 5 / 40 5. According to the theory of punctuated equilibrium, how does evolution occur? Rapidly during periods of stasis Through continuous adaptation of species to their environments Due to a variety of phenotypes within a population By short spurts of evolutionary changes during periods of stasis Slowly and gradually via accumulation of small intermediary changes 6 / 40 6. What is the function of the notochord during neurulation? It forms the neural tube. It forms the neural crest cells. It stimulates ectoderm to thicken, forming the neural plate. It differentiates into the Central Nervous System (CNS). It forms the vertebrae and skeletal muscles associated with axial skeleton. 7 / 40 7. Which type of gland is not found in the palms of hands and soles of feet? None of the above Sebaceous gland Apocrine gland Sweat gland Eccrine gland 8 / 40 8. What is the function of the hypodermis? It generates hair follicles It protects against UV radiation It produces sweat for thermoregulation It is the main site for fat storage It synthesizes vitamin D 9 / 40 9. Which of the following best describes the role of renin in the Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System (RAAS)? It is an enzyme that acts on angiotensinogen to activate it to the form angiotensin I. It stimulates additional aldosterone release from the adrenal gland cortex. It increases Na+ reabsorption from the proximal tubule. It is a potent systemic vasoconstrictor. It stimulates the sympathetic nervous system. 10 / 40 10. Where does filtration primarily occur in the nephron? Distal convoluted tubule Proximal convoluted tubule Loop of Henle Glomerulus and the Bowman’s capsule Collecting duct 11 / 40 11. How does the liver handle the dangerous byproduct of protein metabolism, ammonia? It converts ammonia into bilirubin It converts ammonia into glycogen It converts ammonia into glucose It converts ammonia into urea It converts ammonia into albumin 12 / 40 12. In females, which hormone during the menstrual cycle causes ovulation? Estrogen FSH LH Testosterone Progesterone 13 / 40 13. The hormone FSH in males stimulates what? Blood glucose level increase Sperm maturation Glucose storage Fight or flight response Testosterone production 14 / 40 14. Which of the following hormones increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts and depressing osteoblasts? Vitamin D Thyroid hormone Parathyroid hormone Growth hormone Calcitonin 15 / 40 15. What is the function of the epiphyseal plate? To provide support for the body To lengthen the diaphysis through growth and ossification To contain red bone marrow for hematopoiesis To provide protection for the organs To store fat in the medullary cavity 16 / 40 16. Which of the following statements accurately describes the I band? The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only thin actin filaments are present. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where actin and myosin overlap. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only actin filaments are present. The I band is the midpoint of the sarcomere. 17 / 40 17. What type of cells form the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system? Oligodendrocytes Astrocytes Schwann cells Satellite cells Ependymal cells 18 / 40 18. Which neurotransmitter is associated with the "fight or flight" response? Serotonin GABA Norepinephrine Acetylcholine Dopamine 19 / 40 19. Which type of immunity is responsible for the production and release of antibodies? Cell-mediated immunity Artificial immunity Passive immunity Humoral immunity Innate immunity 20 / 40 20. Which type of leukocyte is responsible for the first part of the inflammatory response? Mast cells Neutrophils B cells Natural killer cells T cells 21 / 40 21. Which of the following is NOT a component of the bicarbonate buffering system? Carbonic acid Carbon dioxide Bicarbonate anion Water Hemoglobin 22 / 40 22. What is the primary function of the umbilical vein in fetal circulation? Carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta Allows oxygen-poor blood to leave the pulmonary artery Carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta Connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava 23 / 40 23. Which of the following statements is true about blood clotting? It is an example of a negative feedback mechanism Fibrinogen is an active form that forms the clot Exposed collagen triggers platelet activation Platelets release thromboplastin to attract more platelets A clot is formed before platelets aggregate 24 / 40 24. What is the role of auxins in plant growth? They are responsible for stem and shoot elongation. They function during stress and inhibit growth. They cause cell growth and are responsible for plant tropisms. They increase fruit ripening. They regulate cell differentiation and division. 25 / 40 25. Which type of growth occurs at the apical meristems and leads to vertical growth in plants? Primary growth Initial growth Terminal growth Secondary growth Tertiary growth 26 / 40 26. Which type of chordate lacks a heart in its circulatory system? Fish (Bony) Tunicates Lancelets Reptilia Mammalia (Monotremes) 27 / 40 27. What does the term "competent" mean in the context of bacterial cloning? The bacteria can be easily viewed under a microscope The bacteria can undergo transformation The bacteria have a high growth rate The bacteria are resistant to antibiotics The bacteria can be easily stained 28 / 40 28. What is the process of creating millions of copies of DNA called? Karyotyping Bacterial cloning Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) Gel electrophoresis CRISPR 29 / 40 29. Which term refers to a sequence of DNA that codes for a trait? Locus Mutation Genome Gene Allele 30 / 40 30. What is the difference between incomplete dominance and codominance? Incomplete dominance has an intermediate state, while codominance expresses both alleles Incomplete dominance is when one gene affects the expression of another, while codominance is when one gene is responsible for many traits Incomplete dominance is when many genes are responsible for one trait, while codominance is when one gene is responsible for many traits Incomplete dominance expresses both alleles, while codominance has an intermediate state Incomplete dominance has multiple allele options, while codominance does not 31 / 40 31. What is the primary difference between the action of exonucleases and endonucleases on a polynucleotide chain? Exonucleases cleave nucleotides from the inside of the chain, while endonucleases cleave from the ends of the chain. Exonucleases remove the 5' cap, while endonucleases remove the poly A tail. Exonucleases aid in transcription, while endonucleases aid in translation. Exonucleases cleave nucleotides from the ends of the chain, while endonucleases cleave from the inside of the chain. Exonucleases add nucleotides to the ends of the chain, while endonucleases add nucleotides to the inside of the chain. 32 / 40 32. What happens during the G0 phase of the cell cycle? The cell replicates its genome. The cell prepares for cell division by checking DNA for any errors after replication. The cell grows in preparation for cell division. The cell divides into two daughter cells. The cell checks for favorable conditions and, if unfavorable, it halts in the cell cycle. 33 / 40 33. What happens in the prophase of mitosis? The spindle apparatus guides the chromosomes to the metaphase plate Chromatin condenses into chromosomes Chromosomes have segregated and nuclear membranes reform The physical separation of the cytoplasm and cell membrane into two daughter cells etochore microtubules shorten to pull sister chromatids apart 34 / 40 34. What is the main drawback in the process of C4 photosynthesis? The production of excess oxygen. The production of excess glucose. The production of pyruvate that needs to be shuttled back to mesophyll cells using ATP energy. The spatial isolation of carbon dioxide. The release of CO2 in the mesophyll cells. 35 / 40 35. In which part of the plant cell does the Calvin cycle take place? Chloroplast stroma Thylakoid membrane Cytoplasm Mitochondria Nucleus 36 / 40 36. In the Cori cycle, where does lactate get transported to be converted back into glucose? Muscle cells Mitochondria Kidneys Red blood cells Liver cells 37 / 40 37. What is the term used to describe the process by which a cell's cytoplasm shrinks away from the cell wall due to water loss from being in a hypertonic solution? Dysplasia Atrophy Plasmolysis Hypertrophy Hyperplasia 38 / 40 38. Which factor affects the fluidity of the cell membrane? The presence of carbohydrate chains The level of membrane protein saturation The temperature and level of cholesterol and unsaturation of fatty acids The size of the hydrocarbon rings in cholesterol The presence of adhesion proteins 39 / 40 39. What nitrogenous base is found in RNA instead of thymine? Guanine (G) Thymine (T) Cytosine (C) Uracil (U) Adenine (A) 40 / 40 40. What is the empirical formula of monosaccharides? CHO (CH2O)n CH4O2 C2H4O2 C6H12O6 Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback
