DAT Biology Practice Test 1# (FREE) Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #1 1 / 40 1. The innate behavior where an animal responds to a stimulus without thought is known as: Classical conditioning Imprinting Reflex Fixed Action Pattern Instinct 2 / 40 2. What is the euphotic zone in aquatic biomes? The zone where bioluminescent species produce light The zone that is semi-irradiated with sun The zone where sunlight penetrates all the way to the ocean floor The zone with strong irradiance allowing for plant survival and photosynthesis The zone where there is no light or photosynthetic species 3 / 40 3. What does it mean for a species to be invasive? The species is native and overtakes its own ecosystem. The species is native and helps other species thrive. The species is non-native and outcompetes native species, overtaking the ecosystem. The species is harmful and toxic to other species. The species is non-native but does not overrun the ecosystem. 4 / 40 4. How do vestigial structures provide evidence for evolution? They develop as a result of use and disuse. They perform the same function in different organisms. They are homologous to functional structures in other organisms. They serve no purpose in the organism. They are analogous to structures in other organisms. 5 / 40 5. Which of the following best defines evolution? The rapid change of traits in a single generation. The development of an individual organism over its lifetime. The consistent and unchanging distribution of traits in a population. The immediate adaptation of an organism to its environment. The gradual development and change of heritable traits in populations over successive generations. 6 / 40 6. Which of the following reproductive methods involves offspring developing and hatching outside of the mother's body? Oviparity Viviparity Ovoviviparity Hermaphroditism Parthenogenesis 7 / 40 7. In which layer of the epidermis do keratinocyte stem cells proliferate? Stratum basale Stratum spinosum Stratum lucidum Stratum corneum Stratum granulosum 8 / 40 8. Where are eccrine glands located? Throughout the entire body surface Only in the dermis At specific sites such as the armpits and groin Only in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet Only in the epidermis 9 / 40 9. Which substances are almost completely reabsorbed by the nephron due to their importance in the body? Urea and waste products Proteins and blood cells Water and salts Glucose and amino acids Na+ and Cl- 10 / 40 10. What best describes the relationship between marine fish and their environment in terms of osmoregulation? Marine fish are isotonic to their environment Marine fish are hypertonic to their environment Marine fish are hypotonic to their environment Marine fish are hyperosmotic to their environment Marine fish are hypoosmotic to their environment 11 / 40 11. What is the role of enteropeptidase in digestion? It digests fats to fatty acids It activates the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas It digests carbohydrates to simple sugars It digests proteins to amino acids It converts trypsinogen to trypsin 12 / 40 12. What is the function of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? It increases the number of aquaporins for water elimination. It increases the rate of urination. It has no effect on the rate of urination. It decreases the rate of urination by increasing water retention. It decreases water retention. 13 / 40 13. What type of feedback loop promotes stability in the body by preventing hormone overproduction? Negative feedback Loop feedback Both positive and negative feedback Positive feedback Neither positive nor negative feedback 14 / 40 14. Which of the following types of cartilage is highly flexible and found in ears and epiglottis? Fibrous cartilage Hyaline cartilage A and B Elastic cartilage B and C 15 / 40 15. What is the function of the epiphysis in a long bone? It contains blood vessels for nutrient supply. It is a long, hollow shaft in the center of the bone. It is the end of a long bone that forms joints with other bones. It is a small space between lamellae that holds bone cells. It is the area of fat storage within the medullary cavity. 16 / 40 16. What is the deepest sheath that covers the muscle fibers? Perimysium Epimysium Endomysium Sarcoplasm Sarcolemma 17 / 40 17. What happens when a stimulus causes the threshold potential to be reached in a neuron? Voltage-gated K+ channels open and let K+ out of the cell Both A and B Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open and let Ca2+ into the neuron Voltage-gated Cl- channels open and let Cl- into the cell Voltage-gated Na+ channels open and let Na+ in, resulting in depolarization of the neuron 18 / 40 18. What is the function of the myelin sheath? To produce cerebrospinal fluid To help recycle neurotransmitters To receive signals from other neurons To speed up action potential propagation To form the blood-brain barrier 19 / 40 19. Which type of presentation involves T cells binding to antigens presented on APCs and then releasing interleukins to boost both innate immunity and adaptive immunity? Passive presentation Natural presentation MHC II presentation Active presentation MHC I presentation 20 / 40 20. Which of the following is an example of external immunity? Inflammatory response Phagocytic cells Complement proteins Natural killer cells Mucous membranes 21 / 40 21. What is the main intracellular buffer system in humans? Hemoglobin buffering system Carbonic acid buffering system Bicarbonate buffering system Phosphate buffering system Carbonic anhydrase buffering system 22 / 40 22. The sinoatrial (SA) node is responsible for initiating the cardiac cycle. Which of the following statements is true about it? It is located in the lower wall of the right atrium It is responsible for adding a brief delay between the contraction of the atria and the contraction of the ventricles It is located in the upper wall of the left atrium It sends a signal to the bundle of His to initiate contraction It is self-excitable and has the greatest automaticity 23 / 40 23. What is the correct formula for calculating cardiac output (CO)? CO = HR x SV CO = HR + SV CO = HR / SV CO = SV x TPR CO = SV / HR 24 / 40 24. What is a characteristic feature of bryophytes? They grow vertically to remain close to water and nutrients. They are found in dry habitats. They are vascular plants. They spend the majority of their life cycle in the sporophyte stage. They contain rhizoids which aid in water absorption and minor anchorage. 25 / 40 25. What is the first part of the embryo to emerge during the process of germination? Hypocotyl Epicotyl Endosperm Plumule Radicle 26 / 40 26. What is the primary mode of reproduction for organisms in the Platyhelminthes phylum? Budding Asexual Both sexual and asexual Sexual Parthenogenesis 27 / 40 27. How are DNA microarrays used in genomics research? To store genomic information. To determine which genes are being expressed. To sequence the genome of a new species. To identify the location of genes on a chromosome. To replicate DNA sequences. 28 / 40 28. What is the correct order of organelles from most dense to least dense in density centrifugation? ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes > nuclei Mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > nuclei > ribosomes Nuclei > mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > ribosomes Ribosomes > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > nuclei Nuclei > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes 29 / 40 29. What is an example of polygenic inheritance? ABO blood typing Baldness gene covering up the genes for hair color Red and white flowers producing pink offspring Cystic fibrosis with multiple symptoms caused by a single gene Height, a single trait affected by many genes 30 / 40 30. What is the definition of heredity? The passing of traits from parents to offspring The genetic composition of an organism The process of DNA replication The process of protein synthesis The observable traits that result from a genotype 31 / 40 31. In the structure of nucleosomes, which histone holds the DNA in place? Histone H2A Histone H4 Histone H3 Histone H1 Histone H2B 32 / 40 32. What are the sister chromatids in a dyad connected by? Autosomes Sex chromosomes Kinetochores Microtubules Centromeres 33 / 40 33. What is the function of the pericentriolar material? To check DNA for any errors after replication To separate sister chromatids in a dyad To start microtubule extension To guide chromosomes during karyokinesis To pull sister chromatids apart during cell division 34 / 40 34. What occurs during the process of non-cyclic photophosphorylation? The Calvin cycle is activated. Only photosystem I is used. ATP is produced, and NADPH is not generated. Only photosystem II is used. ATP and NADPH are both generated. 35 / 40 35. Which cells in the leaf structure are responsible for most of the photosynthesis? Stomata Spongy mesophyll cells Epidermal cells Guard cells Palisade mesophyll cells 36 / 40 36. What is the purpose of the electron transport chain in oxidative phosphorylation? To reduce NADH to NAD+ To convert ADP to ATP directly To pump protons into the mitochondrial matrix To regenerate electron carriers and create an electrochemical gradient to power ATP production To produce CO2 as a byproduct 37 / 40 37. What is the main difference between the structures of eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella? Eukaryotic flagella move in a rotary motion, while prokaryotic flagella move in a bending motion. Eukaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin, while prokaryotic flagella are made of polymers of tubulin. Eukaryotic flagella have nine doublets of microtubules, while prokaryotic flagella have a 9+2 array. Prokaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin and do not have a 9+2 array, while eukaryotic flagella do have this 9+2 array. Prokaryotic flagella are produced by a basal body, while eukaryotic flagella are not. 38 / 40 38. What is the main difference between an agonist and an antagonist in cell signaling? An agonist decreases the fluidity of the cell membrane, while an antagonist increases it. An agonist binds to adhesion proteins, while an antagonist binds to recognition proteins. An agonist binds to receptors and activates a target function, while an antagonist prevents other molecules from binding. An agonist introduces kinks in the lipid bilayer, while an antagonist does not. An agonist is a glycoprotein, while an antagonist is not. 39 / 40 39. Which of the following is a exception to the central dogma of genetics? Proteins → RNA → DNA RNA → proteins → DNA DNA → proteins → RNA RNA → DNA → proteins DNA → RNA → proteins 40 / 40 40. Which of the following is not a component of carbohydrates? Hydrogen Oxygen Nitrogen Carbon All of the above are components of carbohydrates Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback
