DAT Biology Practice Test 1# (FREE) Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #1 1 / 40 1. The innate behavior where an animal responds to a stimulus without thought is known as: Imprinting Reflex Fixed Action Pattern Instinct Classical conditioning 2 / 40 2. What is the euphotic zone in aquatic biomes? The zone where bioluminescent species produce light The zone with strong irradiance allowing for plant survival and photosynthesis The zone that is semi-irradiated with sun The zone where sunlight penetrates all the way to the ocean floor The zone where there is no light or photosynthetic species 3 / 40 3. What does it mean for a species to be invasive? The species is harmful and toxic to other species. The species is non-native but does not overrun the ecosystem. The species is native and overtakes its own ecosystem. The species is non-native and outcompetes native species, overtaking the ecosystem. The species is native and helps other species thrive. 4 / 40 4. How do vestigial structures provide evidence for evolution? They perform the same function in different organisms. They are analogous to structures in other organisms. They develop as a result of use and disuse. They serve no purpose in the organism. They are homologous to functional structures in other organisms. 5 / 40 5. Which of the following best defines evolution? The immediate adaptation of an organism to its environment. The development of an individual organism over its lifetime. The gradual development and change of heritable traits in populations over successive generations. The rapid change of traits in a single generation. The consistent and unchanging distribution of traits in a population. 6 / 40 6. Which of the following reproductive methods involves offspring developing and hatching outside of the mother's body? Parthenogenesis Viviparity Oviparity Ovoviviparity Hermaphroditism 7 / 40 7. In which layer of the epidermis do keratinocyte stem cells proliferate? Stratum lucidum Stratum corneum Stratum spinosum Stratum basale Stratum granulosum 8 / 40 8. Where are eccrine glands located? At specific sites such as the armpits and groin Only in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet Only in the dermis Throughout the entire body surface Only in the epidermis 9 / 40 9. Which substances are almost completely reabsorbed by the nephron due to their importance in the body? Na+ and Cl- Water and salts Glucose and amino acids Urea and waste products Proteins and blood cells 10 / 40 10. What best describes the relationship between marine fish and their environment in terms of osmoregulation? Marine fish are hypoosmotic to their environment Marine fish are isotonic to their environment Marine fish are hypertonic to their environment Marine fish are hypotonic to their environment Marine fish are hyperosmotic to their environment 11 / 40 11. What is the role of enteropeptidase in digestion? It activates the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas It digests fats to fatty acids It converts trypsinogen to trypsin It digests carbohydrates to simple sugars It digests proteins to amino acids 12 / 40 12. What is the function of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? It increases the number of aquaporins for water elimination. It decreases the rate of urination by increasing water retention. It has no effect on the rate of urination. It decreases water retention. It increases the rate of urination. 13 / 40 13. What type of feedback loop promotes stability in the body by preventing hormone overproduction? Both positive and negative feedback Neither positive nor negative feedback Loop feedback Positive feedback Negative feedback 14 / 40 14. Which of the following types of cartilage is highly flexible and found in ears and epiglottis? Fibrous cartilage B and C Hyaline cartilage Elastic cartilage A and B 15 / 40 15. What is the function of the epiphysis in a long bone? It contains blood vessels for nutrient supply. It is a long, hollow shaft in the center of the bone. It is the area of fat storage within the medullary cavity. It is the end of a long bone that forms joints with other bones. It is a small space between lamellae that holds bone cells. 16 / 40 16. What is the deepest sheath that covers the muscle fibers? Sarcolemma Perimysium Epimysium Endomysium Sarcoplasm 17 / 40 17. What happens when a stimulus causes the threshold potential to be reached in a neuron? Voltage-gated Cl- channels open and let Cl- into the cell Both A and B Voltage-gated Na+ channels open and let Na+ in, resulting in depolarization of the neuron Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open and let Ca2+ into the neuron Voltage-gated K+ channels open and let K+ out of the cell 18 / 40 18. What is the function of the myelin sheath? To help recycle neurotransmitters To receive signals from other neurons To produce cerebrospinal fluid To speed up action potential propagation To form the blood-brain barrier 19 / 40 19. Which type of presentation involves T cells binding to antigens presented on APCs and then releasing interleukins to boost both innate immunity and adaptive immunity? Active presentation Passive presentation Natural presentation MHC I presentation MHC II presentation 20 / 40 20. Which of the following is an example of external immunity? Inflammatory response Phagocytic cells Complement proteins Natural killer cells Mucous membranes 21 / 40 21. What is the main intracellular buffer system in humans? Carbonic acid buffering system Hemoglobin buffering system Carbonic anhydrase buffering system Phosphate buffering system Bicarbonate buffering system 22 / 40 22. The sinoatrial (SA) node is responsible for initiating the cardiac cycle. Which of the following statements is true about it? It is located in the upper wall of the left atrium It is located in the lower wall of the right atrium It is self-excitable and has the greatest automaticity It is responsible for adding a brief delay between the contraction of the atria and the contraction of the ventricles It sends a signal to the bundle of His to initiate contraction 23 / 40 23. What is the correct formula for calculating cardiac output (CO)? CO = HR / SV CO = SV / HR CO = HR + SV CO = SV x TPR CO = HR x SV 24 / 40 24. What is a characteristic feature of bryophytes? They are vascular plants. They spend the majority of their life cycle in the sporophyte stage. They grow vertically to remain close to water and nutrients. They contain rhizoids which aid in water absorption and minor anchorage. They are found in dry habitats. 25 / 40 25. What is the first part of the embryo to emerge during the process of germination? Plumule Radicle Endosperm Epicotyl Hypocotyl 26 / 40 26. What is the primary mode of reproduction for organisms in the Platyhelminthes phylum? Both sexual and asexual Budding Asexual Parthenogenesis Sexual 27 / 40 27. How are DNA microarrays used in genomics research? To replicate DNA sequences. To sequence the genome of a new species. To identify the location of genes on a chromosome. To determine which genes are being expressed. To store genomic information. 28 / 40 28. What is the correct order of organelles from most dense to least dense in density centrifugation? Mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > nuclei > ribosomes Nuclei > mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > ribosomes Ribosomes > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > nuclei ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes > nuclei Nuclei > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes 29 / 40 29. What is an example of polygenic inheritance? Red and white flowers producing pink offspring Height, a single trait affected by many genes ABO blood typing Baldness gene covering up the genes for hair color Cystic fibrosis with multiple symptoms caused by a single gene 30 / 40 30. What is the definition of heredity? The genetic composition of an organism The observable traits that result from a genotype The process of protein synthesis The process of DNA replication The passing of traits from parents to offspring 31 / 40 31. In the structure of nucleosomes, which histone holds the DNA in place? Histone H1 Histone H2B Histone H3 Histone H4 Histone H2A 32 / 40 32. What are the sister chromatids in a dyad connected by? Microtubules Autosomes Centromeres Kinetochores Sex chromosomes 33 / 40 33. What is the function of the pericentriolar material? To start microtubule extension To separate sister chromatids in a dyad To guide chromosomes during karyokinesis To check DNA for any errors after replication To pull sister chromatids apart during cell division 34 / 40 34. What occurs during the process of non-cyclic photophosphorylation? Only photosystem II is used. The Calvin cycle is activated. Only photosystem I is used. ATP and NADPH are both generated. ATP is produced, and NADPH is not generated. 35 / 40 35. Which cells in the leaf structure are responsible for most of the photosynthesis? Spongy mesophyll cells Palisade mesophyll cells Guard cells Epidermal cells Stomata 36 / 40 36. What is the purpose of the electron transport chain in oxidative phosphorylation? To reduce NADH to NAD+ To regenerate electron carriers and create an electrochemical gradient to power ATP production To convert ADP to ATP directly To produce CO2 as a byproduct To pump protons into the mitochondrial matrix 37 / 40 37. What is the main difference between the structures of eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella? Prokaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin and do not have a 9+2 array, while eukaryotic flagella do have this 9+2 array. Prokaryotic flagella are produced by a basal body, while eukaryotic flagella are not. Eukaryotic flagella have nine doublets of microtubules, while prokaryotic flagella have a 9+2 array. Eukaryotic flagella move in a rotary motion, while prokaryotic flagella move in a bending motion. Eukaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin, while prokaryotic flagella are made of polymers of tubulin. 38 / 40 38. What is the main difference between an agonist and an antagonist in cell signaling? An agonist binds to adhesion proteins, while an antagonist binds to recognition proteins. An agonist decreases the fluidity of the cell membrane, while an antagonist increases it. An agonist is a glycoprotein, while an antagonist is not. An agonist introduces kinks in the lipid bilayer, while an antagonist does not. An agonist binds to receptors and activates a target function, while an antagonist prevents other molecules from binding. 39 / 40 39. Which of the following is a exception to the central dogma of genetics? DNA → proteins → RNA DNA → RNA → proteins RNA → proteins → DNA Proteins → RNA → DNA RNA → DNA → proteins 40 / 40 40. Which of the following is not a component of carbohydrates? Carbon Oxygen All of the above are components of carbohydrates Hydrogen Nitrogen Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback
