DAT Biology Practice Test 1# (FREE) Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #1 1 / 40 1. The innate behavior where an animal responds to a stimulus without thought is known as: Instinct Imprinting Fixed Action Pattern Classical conditioning Reflex 2 / 40 2. What is the euphotic zone in aquatic biomes? The zone that is semi-irradiated with sun The zone where there is no light or photosynthetic species The zone where sunlight penetrates all the way to the ocean floor The zone where bioluminescent species produce light The zone with strong irradiance allowing for plant survival and photosynthesis 3 / 40 3. What does it mean for a species to be invasive? The species is non-native but does not overrun the ecosystem. The species is native and helps other species thrive. The species is harmful and toxic to other species. The species is native and overtakes its own ecosystem. The species is non-native and outcompetes native species, overtaking the ecosystem. 4 / 40 4. How do vestigial structures provide evidence for evolution? They develop as a result of use and disuse. They serve no purpose in the organism. They are homologous to functional structures in other organisms. They perform the same function in different organisms. They are analogous to structures in other organisms. 5 / 40 5. Which of the following best defines evolution? The immediate adaptation of an organism to its environment. The development of an individual organism over its lifetime. The gradual development and change of heritable traits in populations over successive generations. The consistent and unchanging distribution of traits in a population. The rapid change of traits in a single generation. 6 / 40 6. Which of the following reproductive methods involves offspring developing and hatching outside of the mother's body? Viviparity Parthenogenesis Ovoviviparity Oviparity Hermaphroditism 7 / 40 7. In which layer of the epidermis do keratinocyte stem cells proliferate? Stratum corneum Stratum granulosum Stratum spinosum Stratum basale Stratum lucidum 8 / 40 8. Where are eccrine glands located? Only in the epidermis Throughout the entire body surface Only in the dermis At specific sites such as the armpits and groin Only in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet 9 / 40 9. Which substances are almost completely reabsorbed by the nephron due to their importance in the body? Proteins and blood cells Urea and waste products Glucose and amino acids Water and salts Na+ and Cl- 10 / 40 10. What best describes the relationship between marine fish and their environment in terms of osmoregulation? Marine fish are isotonic to their environment Marine fish are hypoosmotic to their environment Marine fish are hyperosmotic to their environment Marine fish are hypertonic to their environment Marine fish are hypotonic to their environment 11 / 40 11. What is the role of enteropeptidase in digestion? It digests proteins to amino acids It activates the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas It digests fats to fatty acids It converts trypsinogen to trypsin It digests carbohydrates to simple sugars 12 / 40 12. What is the function of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? It has no effect on the rate of urination. It increases the rate of urination. It increases the number of aquaporins for water elimination. It decreases the rate of urination by increasing water retention. It decreases water retention. 13 / 40 13. What type of feedback loop promotes stability in the body by preventing hormone overproduction? Loop feedback Positive feedback Both positive and negative feedback Negative feedback Neither positive nor negative feedback 14 / 40 14. Which of the following types of cartilage is highly flexible and found in ears and epiglottis? A and B Fibrous cartilage B and C Hyaline cartilage Elastic cartilage 15 / 40 15. What is the function of the epiphysis in a long bone? It is the end of a long bone that forms joints with other bones. It is the area of fat storage within the medullary cavity. It is a long, hollow shaft in the center of the bone. It is a small space between lamellae that holds bone cells. It contains blood vessels for nutrient supply. 16 / 40 16. What is the deepest sheath that covers the muscle fibers? Perimysium Sarcoplasm Epimysium Sarcolemma Endomysium 17 / 40 17. What happens when a stimulus causes the threshold potential to be reached in a neuron? Voltage-gated K+ channels open and let K+ out of the cell Voltage-gated Cl- channels open and let Cl- into the cell Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open and let Ca2+ into the neuron Both A and B Voltage-gated Na+ channels open and let Na+ in, resulting in depolarization of the neuron 18 / 40 18. What is the function of the myelin sheath? To produce cerebrospinal fluid To form the blood-brain barrier To speed up action potential propagation To receive signals from other neurons To help recycle neurotransmitters 19 / 40 19. Which type of presentation involves T cells binding to antigens presented on APCs and then releasing interleukins to boost both innate immunity and adaptive immunity? Natural presentation Active presentation MHC II presentation MHC I presentation Passive presentation 20 / 40 20. Which of the following is an example of external immunity? Inflammatory response Natural killer cells Mucous membranes Phagocytic cells Complement proteins 21 / 40 21. What is the main intracellular buffer system in humans? Hemoglobin buffering system Carbonic acid buffering system Bicarbonate buffering system Phosphate buffering system Carbonic anhydrase buffering system 22 / 40 22. The sinoatrial (SA) node is responsible for initiating the cardiac cycle. Which of the following statements is true about it? It is responsible for adding a brief delay between the contraction of the atria and the contraction of the ventricles It is located in the lower wall of the right atrium It sends a signal to the bundle of His to initiate contraction It is located in the upper wall of the left atrium It is self-excitable and has the greatest automaticity 23 / 40 23. What is the correct formula for calculating cardiac output (CO)? CO = SV / HR CO = HR + SV CO = HR x SV CO = HR / SV CO = SV x TPR 24 / 40 24. What is a characteristic feature of bryophytes? They are found in dry habitats. They spend the majority of their life cycle in the sporophyte stage. They grow vertically to remain close to water and nutrients. They contain rhizoids which aid in water absorption and minor anchorage. They are vascular plants. 25 / 40 25. What is the first part of the embryo to emerge during the process of germination? Radicle Endosperm Epicotyl Hypocotyl Plumule 26 / 40 26. What is the primary mode of reproduction for organisms in the Platyhelminthes phylum? Budding Parthenogenesis Asexual Both sexual and asexual Sexual 27 / 40 27. How are DNA microarrays used in genomics research? To determine which genes are being expressed. To identify the location of genes on a chromosome. To sequence the genome of a new species. To replicate DNA sequences. To store genomic information. 28 / 40 28. What is the correct order of organelles from most dense to least dense in density centrifugation? Nuclei > mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > ribosomes Nuclei > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes Ribosomes > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > nuclei ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes > nuclei Mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > nuclei > ribosomes 29 / 40 29. What is an example of polygenic inheritance? Baldness gene covering up the genes for hair color Cystic fibrosis with multiple symptoms caused by a single gene ABO blood typing Red and white flowers producing pink offspring Height, a single trait affected by many genes 30 / 40 30. What is the definition of heredity? The process of protein synthesis The genetic composition of an organism The process of DNA replication The observable traits that result from a genotype The passing of traits from parents to offspring 31 / 40 31. In the structure of nucleosomes, which histone holds the DNA in place? Histone H2A Histone H1 Histone H3 Histone H4 Histone H2B 32 / 40 32. What are the sister chromatids in a dyad connected by? Centromeres Kinetochores Autosomes Microtubules Sex chromosomes 33 / 40 33. What is the function of the pericentriolar material? To guide chromosomes during karyokinesis To start microtubule extension To separate sister chromatids in a dyad To check DNA for any errors after replication To pull sister chromatids apart during cell division 34 / 40 34. What occurs during the process of non-cyclic photophosphorylation? The Calvin cycle is activated. Only photosystem II is used. ATP is produced, and NADPH is not generated. Only photosystem I is used. ATP and NADPH are both generated. 35 / 40 35. Which cells in the leaf structure are responsible for most of the photosynthesis? Stomata Epidermal cells Palisade mesophyll cells Guard cells Spongy mesophyll cells 36 / 40 36. What is the purpose of the electron transport chain in oxidative phosphorylation? To pump protons into the mitochondrial matrix To regenerate electron carriers and create an electrochemical gradient to power ATP production To reduce NADH to NAD+ To produce CO2 as a byproduct To convert ADP to ATP directly 37 / 40 37. What is the main difference between the structures of eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella? Eukaryotic flagella move in a rotary motion, while prokaryotic flagella move in a bending motion. Eukaryotic flagella have nine doublets of microtubules, while prokaryotic flagella have a 9+2 array. Eukaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin, while prokaryotic flagella are made of polymers of tubulin. Prokaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin and do not have a 9+2 array, while eukaryotic flagella do have this 9+2 array. Prokaryotic flagella are produced by a basal body, while eukaryotic flagella are not. 38 / 40 38. What is the main difference between an agonist and an antagonist in cell signaling? An agonist is a glycoprotein, while an antagonist is not. An agonist introduces kinks in the lipid bilayer, while an antagonist does not. An agonist decreases the fluidity of the cell membrane, while an antagonist increases it. An agonist binds to receptors and activates a target function, while an antagonist prevents other molecules from binding. An agonist binds to adhesion proteins, while an antagonist binds to recognition proteins. 39 / 40 39. Which of the following is a exception to the central dogma of genetics? DNA → proteins → RNA Proteins → RNA → DNA RNA → DNA → proteins RNA → proteins → DNA DNA → RNA → proteins 40 / 40 40. Which of the following is not a component of carbohydrates? Carbon Nitrogen All of the above are components of carbohydrates Oxygen Hydrogen Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback
