DAT Biology Practice Test 1# (FREE) Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #1 1 / 40 1. The innate behavior where an animal responds to a stimulus without thought is known as: Imprinting Instinct Fixed Action Pattern Reflex Classical conditioning 2 / 40 2. What is the euphotic zone in aquatic biomes? The zone where bioluminescent species produce light The zone that is semi-irradiated with sun The zone where sunlight penetrates all the way to the ocean floor The zone where there is no light or photosynthetic species The zone with strong irradiance allowing for plant survival and photosynthesis 3 / 40 3. What does it mean for a species to be invasive? The species is non-native but does not overrun the ecosystem. The species is native and helps other species thrive. The species is harmful and toxic to other species. The species is native and overtakes its own ecosystem. The species is non-native and outcompetes native species, overtaking the ecosystem. 4 / 40 4. How do vestigial structures provide evidence for evolution? They perform the same function in different organisms. They serve no purpose in the organism. They are analogous to structures in other organisms. They are homologous to functional structures in other organisms. They develop as a result of use and disuse. 5 / 40 5. Which of the following best defines evolution? The rapid change of traits in a single generation. The development of an individual organism over its lifetime. The immediate adaptation of an organism to its environment. The consistent and unchanging distribution of traits in a population. The gradual development and change of heritable traits in populations over successive generations. 6 / 40 6. Which of the following reproductive methods involves offspring developing and hatching outside of the mother's body? Hermaphroditism Parthenogenesis Ovoviviparity Oviparity Viviparity 7 / 40 7. In which layer of the epidermis do keratinocyte stem cells proliferate? Stratum spinosum Stratum granulosum Stratum basale Stratum lucidum Stratum corneum 8 / 40 8. Where are eccrine glands located? Only in the epidermis Only in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet Throughout the entire body surface At specific sites such as the armpits and groin Only in the dermis 9 / 40 9. Which substances are almost completely reabsorbed by the nephron due to their importance in the body? Na+ and Cl- Water and salts Urea and waste products Glucose and amino acids Proteins and blood cells 10 / 40 10. What best describes the relationship between marine fish and their environment in terms of osmoregulation? Marine fish are isotonic to their environment Marine fish are hypoosmotic to their environment Marine fish are hypotonic to their environment Marine fish are hypertonic to their environment Marine fish are hyperosmotic to their environment 11 / 40 11. What is the role of enteropeptidase in digestion? It digests carbohydrates to simple sugars It digests proteins to amino acids It digests fats to fatty acids It converts trypsinogen to trypsin It activates the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas 12 / 40 12. What is the function of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? It increases the rate of urination. It increases the number of aquaporins for water elimination. It has no effect on the rate of urination. It decreases the rate of urination by increasing water retention. It decreases water retention. 13 / 40 13. What type of feedback loop promotes stability in the body by preventing hormone overproduction? Positive feedback Loop feedback Neither positive nor negative feedback Both positive and negative feedback Negative feedback 14 / 40 14. Which of the following types of cartilage is highly flexible and found in ears and epiglottis? B and C Elastic cartilage Fibrous cartilage A and B Hyaline cartilage 15 / 40 15. What is the function of the epiphysis in a long bone? It is a long, hollow shaft in the center of the bone. It is the area of fat storage within the medullary cavity. It is a small space between lamellae that holds bone cells. It is the end of a long bone that forms joints with other bones. It contains blood vessels for nutrient supply. 16 / 40 16. What is the deepest sheath that covers the muscle fibers? Epimysium Perimysium Sarcoplasm Endomysium Sarcolemma 17 / 40 17. What happens when a stimulus causes the threshold potential to be reached in a neuron? Voltage-gated Na+ channels open and let Na+ in, resulting in depolarization of the neuron Voltage-gated Cl- channels open and let Cl- into the cell Voltage-gated K+ channels open and let K+ out of the cell Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open and let Ca2+ into the neuron Both A and B 18 / 40 18. What is the function of the myelin sheath? To produce cerebrospinal fluid To receive signals from other neurons To speed up action potential propagation To help recycle neurotransmitters To form the blood-brain barrier 19 / 40 19. Which type of presentation involves T cells binding to antigens presented on APCs and then releasing interleukins to boost both innate immunity and adaptive immunity? MHC II presentation MHC I presentation Active presentation Natural presentation Passive presentation 20 / 40 20. Which of the following is an example of external immunity? Phagocytic cells Mucous membranes Inflammatory response Complement proteins Natural killer cells 21 / 40 21. What is the main intracellular buffer system in humans? Carbonic acid buffering system Bicarbonate buffering system Hemoglobin buffering system Phosphate buffering system Carbonic anhydrase buffering system 22 / 40 22. The sinoatrial (SA) node is responsible for initiating the cardiac cycle. Which of the following statements is true about it? It is located in the upper wall of the left atrium It is located in the lower wall of the right atrium It sends a signal to the bundle of His to initiate contraction It is self-excitable and has the greatest automaticity It is responsible for adding a brief delay between the contraction of the atria and the contraction of the ventricles 23 / 40 23. What is the correct formula for calculating cardiac output (CO)? CO = HR / SV CO = SV / HR CO = HR + SV CO = HR x SV CO = SV x TPR 24 / 40 24. What is a characteristic feature of bryophytes? They grow vertically to remain close to water and nutrients. They are vascular plants. They spend the majority of their life cycle in the sporophyte stage. They contain rhizoids which aid in water absorption and minor anchorage. They are found in dry habitats. 25 / 40 25. What is the first part of the embryo to emerge during the process of germination? Epicotyl Plumule Hypocotyl Radicle Endosperm 26 / 40 26. What is the primary mode of reproduction for organisms in the Platyhelminthes phylum? Asexual Budding Both sexual and asexual Sexual Parthenogenesis 27 / 40 27. How are DNA microarrays used in genomics research? To replicate DNA sequences. To identify the location of genes on a chromosome. To sequence the genome of a new species. To determine which genes are being expressed. To store genomic information. 28 / 40 28. What is the correct order of organelles from most dense to least dense in density centrifugation? Nuclei > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes Nuclei > mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > ribosomes Ribosomes > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > nuclei ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes > nuclei Mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > nuclei > ribosomes 29 / 40 29. What is an example of polygenic inheritance? Height, a single trait affected by many genes Red and white flowers producing pink offspring Cystic fibrosis with multiple symptoms caused by a single gene Baldness gene covering up the genes for hair color ABO blood typing 30 / 40 30. What is the definition of heredity? The genetic composition of an organism The observable traits that result from a genotype The process of protein synthesis The process of DNA replication The passing of traits from parents to offspring 31 / 40 31. In the structure of nucleosomes, which histone holds the DNA in place? Histone H4 Histone H2A Histone H1 Histone H3 Histone H2B 32 / 40 32. What are the sister chromatids in a dyad connected by? Kinetochores Microtubules Centromeres Sex chromosomes Autosomes 33 / 40 33. What is the function of the pericentriolar material? To guide chromosomes during karyokinesis To start microtubule extension To check DNA for any errors after replication To pull sister chromatids apart during cell division To separate sister chromatids in a dyad 34 / 40 34. What occurs during the process of non-cyclic photophosphorylation? ATP and NADPH are both generated. The Calvin cycle is activated. ATP is produced, and NADPH is not generated. Only photosystem II is used. Only photosystem I is used. 35 / 40 35. Which cells in the leaf structure are responsible for most of the photosynthesis? Palisade mesophyll cells Stomata Guard cells Spongy mesophyll cells Epidermal cells 36 / 40 36. What is the purpose of the electron transport chain in oxidative phosphorylation? To regenerate electron carriers and create an electrochemical gradient to power ATP production To reduce NADH to NAD+ To produce CO2 as a byproduct To convert ADP to ATP directly To pump protons into the mitochondrial matrix 37 / 40 37. What is the main difference between the structures of eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella? Eukaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin, while prokaryotic flagella are made of polymers of tubulin. Prokaryotic flagella are produced by a basal body, while eukaryotic flagella are not. Prokaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin and do not have a 9+2 array, while eukaryotic flagella do have this 9+2 array. Eukaryotic flagella have nine doublets of microtubules, while prokaryotic flagella have a 9+2 array. Eukaryotic flagella move in a rotary motion, while prokaryotic flagella move in a bending motion. 38 / 40 38. What is the main difference between an agonist and an antagonist in cell signaling? An agonist binds to receptors and activates a target function, while an antagonist prevents other molecules from binding. An agonist introduces kinks in the lipid bilayer, while an antagonist does not. An agonist is a glycoprotein, while an antagonist is not. An agonist binds to adhesion proteins, while an antagonist binds to recognition proteins. An agonist decreases the fluidity of the cell membrane, while an antagonist increases it. 39 / 40 39. Which of the following is a exception to the central dogma of genetics? DNA → proteins → RNA DNA → RNA → proteins RNA → DNA → proteins Proteins → RNA → DNA RNA → proteins → DNA 40 / 40 40. Which of the following is not a component of carbohydrates? Nitrogen All of the above are components of carbohydrates Carbon Hydrogen Oxygen Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback
