DAT Biology Practice Test 1# (FREE) Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #1 1 / 40 1. The innate behavior where an animal responds to a stimulus without thought is known as: Reflex Instinct Classical conditioning Imprinting Fixed Action Pattern 2 / 40 2. What is the euphotic zone in aquatic biomes? The zone where bioluminescent species produce light The zone with strong irradiance allowing for plant survival and photosynthesis The zone where there is no light or photosynthetic species The zone that is semi-irradiated with sun The zone where sunlight penetrates all the way to the ocean floor 3 / 40 3. What does it mean for a species to be invasive? The species is native and helps other species thrive. The species is harmful and toxic to other species. The species is native and overtakes its own ecosystem. The species is non-native and outcompetes native species, overtaking the ecosystem. The species is non-native but does not overrun the ecosystem. 4 / 40 4. How do vestigial structures provide evidence for evolution? They perform the same function in different organisms. They develop as a result of use and disuse. They are analogous to structures in other organisms. They are homologous to functional structures in other organisms. They serve no purpose in the organism. 5 / 40 5. Which of the following best defines evolution? The gradual development and change of heritable traits in populations over successive generations. The rapid change of traits in a single generation. The consistent and unchanging distribution of traits in a population. The development of an individual organism over its lifetime. The immediate adaptation of an organism to its environment. 6 / 40 6. Which of the following reproductive methods involves offspring developing and hatching outside of the mother's body? Parthenogenesis Viviparity Ovoviviparity Hermaphroditism Oviparity 7 / 40 7. In which layer of the epidermis do keratinocyte stem cells proliferate? Stratum basale Stratum corneum Stratum lucidum Stratum granulosum Stratum spinosum 8 / 40 8. Where are eccrine glands located? Only in the epidermis At specific sites such as the armpits and groin Only in the dermis Throughout the entire body surface Only in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet 9 / 40 9. Which substances are almost completely reabsorbed by the nephron due to their importance in the body? Urea and waste products Glucose and amino acids Na+ and Cl- Proteins and blood cells Water and salts 10 / 40 10. What best describes the relationship between marine fish and their environment in terms of osmoregulation? Marine fish are hypertonic to their environment Marine fish are hypotonic to their environment Marine fish are hyperosmotic to their environment Marine fish are isotonic to their environment Marine fish are hypoosmotic to their environment 11 / 40 11. What is the role of enteropeptidase in digestion? It digests proteins to amino acids It activates the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas It converts trypsinogen to trypsin It digests fats to fatty acids It digests carbohydrates to simple sugars 12 / 40 12. What is the function of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? It decreases the rate of urination by increasing water retention. It increases the number of aquaporins for water elimination. It decreases water retention. It has no effect on the rate of urination. It increases the rate of urination. 13 / 40 13. What type of feedback loop promotes stability in the body by preventing hormone overproduction? Neither positive nor negative feedback Positive feedback Negative feedback Loop feedback Both positive and negative feedback 14 / 40 14. Which of the following types of cartilage is highly flexible and found in ears and epiglottis? Fibrous cartilage Elastic cartilage B and C Hyaline cartilage A and B 15 / 40 15. What is the function of the epiphysis in a long bone? It is a long, hollow shaft in the center of the bone. It is the area of fat storage within the medullary cavity. It is a small space between lamellae that holds bone cells. It contains blood vessels for nutrient supply. It is the end of a long bone that forms joints with other bones. 16 / 40 16. What is the deepest sheath that covers the muscle fibers? Endomysium Sarcoplasm Sarcolemma Perimysium Epimysium 17 / 40 17. What happens when a stimulus causes the threshold potential to be reached in a neuron? Both A and B Voltage-gated Na+ channels open and let Na+ in, resulting in depolarization of the neuron Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open and let Ca2+ into the neuron Voltage-gated K+ channels open and let K+ out of the cell Voltage-gated Cl- channels open and let Cl- into the cell 18 / 40 18. What is the function of the myelin sheath? To help recycle neurotransmitters To receive signals from other neurons To form the blood-brain barrier To produce cerebrospinal fluid To speed up action potential propagation 19 / 40 19. Which type of presentation involves T cells binding to antigens presented on APCs and then releasing interleukins to boost both innate immunity and adaptive immunity? Natural presentation MHC I presentation Active presentation MHC II presentation Passive presentation 20 / 40 20. Which of the following is an example of external immunity? Phagocytic cells Complement proteins Mucous membranes Inflammatory response Natural killer cells 21 / 40 21. What is the main intracellular buffer system in humans? Phosphate buffering system Bicarbonate buffering system Hemoglobin buffering system Carbonic anhydrase buffering system Carbonic acid buffering system 22 / 40 22. The sinoatrial (SA) node is responsible for initiating the cardiac cycle. Which of the following statements is true about it? It is responsible for adding a brief delay between the contraction of the atria and the contraction of the ventricles It is located in the upper wall of the left atrium It sends a signal to the bundle of His to initiate contraction It is located in the lower wall of the right atrium It is self-excitable and has the greatest automaticity 23 / 40 23. What is the correct formula for calculating cardiac output (CO)? CO = SV / HR CO = HR / SV CO = HR + SV CO = SV x TPR CO = HR x SV 24 / 40 24. What is a characteristic feature of bryophytes? They are found in dry habitats. They contain rhizoids which aid in water absorption and minor anchorage. They are vascular plants. They grow vertically to remain close to water and nutrients. They spend the majority of their life cycle in the sporophyte stage. 25 / 40 25. What is the first part of the embryo to emerge during the process of germination? Hypocotyl Endosperm Plumule Epicotyl Radicle 26 / 40 26. What is the primary mode of reproduction for organisms in the Platyhelminthes phylum? Sexual Budding Parthenogenesis Both sexual and asexual Asexual 27 / 40 27. How are DNA microarrays used in genomics research? To identify the location of genes on a chromosome. To replicate DNA sequences. To sequence the genome of a new species. To determine which genes are being expressed. To store genomic information. 28 / 40 28. What is the correct order of organelles from most dense to least dense in density centrifugation? Ribosomes > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > nuclei Nuclei > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes Nuclei > mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > ribosomes Mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > nuclei > ribosomes ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes > nuclei 29 / 40 29. What is an example of polygenic inheritance? Baldness gene covering up the genes for hair color Height, a single trait affected by many genes ABO blood typing Red and white flowers producing pink offspring Cystic fibrosis with multiple symptoms caused by a single gene 30 / 40 30. What is the definition of heredity? The observable traits that result from a genotype The passing of traits from parents to offspring The process of protein synthesis The process of DNA replication The genetic composition of an organism 31 / 40 31. In the structure of nucleosomes, which histone holds the DNA in place? Histone H4 Histone H3 Histone H2A Histone H2B Histone H1 32 / 40 32. What are the sister chromatids in a dyad connected by? Kinetochores Sex chromosomes Microtubules Centromeres Autosomes 33 / 40 33. What is the function of the pericentriolar material? To separate sister chromatids in a dyad To check DNA for any errors after replication To start microtubule extension To pull sister chromatids apart during cell division To guide chromosomes during karyokinesis 34 / 40 34. What occurs during the process of non-cyclic photophosphorylation? ATP is produced, and NADPH is not generated. The Calvin cycle is activated. Only photosystem II is used. ATP and NADPH are both generated. Only photosystem I is used. 35 / 40 35. Which cells in the leaf structure are responsible for most of the photosynthesis? Palisade mesophyll cells Stomata Guard cells Epidermal cells Spongy mesophyll cells 36 / 40 36. What is the purpose of the electron transport chain in oxidative phosphorylation? To pump protons into the mitochondrial matrix To produce CO2 as a byproduct To reduce NADH to NAD+ To regenerate electron carriers and create an electrochemical gradient to power ATP production To convert ADP to ATP directly 37 / 40 37. What is the main difference between the structures of eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella? Eukaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin, while prokaryotic flagella are made of polymers of tubulin. Eukaryotic flagella have nine doublets of microtubules, while prokaryotic flagella have a 9+2 array. Prokaryotic flagella are produced by a basal body, while eukaryotic flagella are not. Eukaryotic flagella move in a rotary motion, while prokaryotic flagella move in a bending motion. Prokaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin and do not have a 9+2 array, while eukaryotic flagella do have this 9+2 array. 38 / 40 38. What is the main difference between an agonist and an antagonist in cell signaling? An agonist decreases the fluidity of the cell membrane, while an antagonist increases it. An agonist introduces kinks in the lipid bilayer, while an antagonist does not. An agonist binds to adhesion proteins, while an antagonist binds to recognition proteins. An agonist is a glycoprotein, while an antagonist is not. An agonist binds to receptors and activates a target function, while an antagonist prevents other molecules from binding. 39 / 40 39. Which of the following is a exception to the central dogma of genetics? RNA → proteins → DNA Proteins → RNA → DNA DNA → proteins → RNA RNA → DNA → proteins DNA → RNA → proteins 40 / 40 40. Which of the following is not a component of carbohydrates? Oxygen All of the above are components of carbohydrates Nitrogen Hydrogen Carbon Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback