DAT Biology Practice Test 2# Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #2 1 / 40 1. What is the term for the behavior used to protect an animal's territory or safe space? Search images Sexual selection Agonistic behavior Territoriality Altruistic behavior 2 / 40 2. Who are the primary consumers in an ecosystem? Organisms that consume dead or decaying organic material. Organisms just above the producers in the food chain, often herbivores. Organisms at the top of the food chain, preying on secondary consumers. Carnivores that prey on herbivores. Organisms that generate their own food through photosynthesis. 3 / 40 3. What role do decomposers play in an ecosystem? They undergo photosynthesis to generate energy. They eat other consumers. They compete with other species for mutual resources. They prey on two species simultaneously. They break down and recycle dead plant or animal material. 4 / 40 4. What does "anagenesis" describe in evolutionary biology? The splitting apart of evolutionary lineages The process of two species imparting selective pressure on each other The process of unrelated species adapting to similar environments The process of different phenotypes becoming isolated within the same area The gradual evolution of an interbreeding population without splitting 5 / 40 5. According to the theory of punctuated equilibrium, how does evolution occur? Rapidly during periods of stasis Due to a variety of phenotypes within a population Through continuous adaptation of species to their environments By short spurts of evolutionary changes during periods of stasis Slowly and gradually via accumulation of small intermediary changes 6 / 40 6. What is the function of the notochord during neurulation? It forms the vertebrae and skeletal muscles associated with axial skeleton. It stimulates ectoderm to thicken, forming the neural plate. It forms the neural tube. It forms the neural crest cells. It differentiates into the Central Nervous System (CNS). 7 / 40 7. Which type of gland is not found in the palms of hands and soles of feet? None of the above Sebaceous gland Sweat gland Eccrine gland Apocrine gland 8 / 40 8. What is the function of the hypodermis? It synthesizes vitamin D It generates hair follicles It protects against UV radiation It is the main site for fat storage It produces sweat for thermoregulation 9 / 40 9. Which of the following best describes the role of renin in the Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System (RAAS)? It is a potent systemic vasoconstrictor. It stimulates the sympathetic nervous system. It stimulates additional aldosterone release from the adrenal gland cortex. It is an enzyme that acts on angiotensinogen to activate it to the form angiotensin I. It increases Na+ reabsorption from the proximal tubule. 10 / 40 10. Where does filtration primarily occur in the nephron? Proximal convoluted tubule Distal convoluted tubule Loop of Henle Glomerulus and the Bowman’s capsule Collecting duct 11 / 40 11. How does the liver handle the dangerous byproduct of protein metabolism, ammonia? It converts ammonia into bilirubin It converts ammonia into albumin It converts ammonia into urea It converts ammonia into glycogen It converts ammonia into glucose 12 / 40 12. In females, which hormone during the menstrual cycle causes ovulation? Testosterone LH FSH Progesterone Estrogen 13 / 40 13. The hormone FSH in males stimulates what? Fight or flight response Sperm maturation Glucose storage Testosterone production Blood glucose level increase 14 / 40 14. Which of the following hormones increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts and depressing osteoblasts? Calcitonin Growth hormone Parathyroid hormone Thyroid hormone Vitamin D 15 / 40 15. What is the function of the epiphyseal plate? To store fat in the medullary cavity To provide protection for the organs To lengthen the diaphysis through growth and ossification To contain red bone marrow for hematopoiesis To provide support for the body 16 / 40 16. Which of the following statements accurately describes the I band? The I band is the midpoint of the sarcomere. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where actin and myosin overlap. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only actin filaments are present. The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only thin actin filaments are present. 17 / 40 17. What type of cells form the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system? Ependymal cells Satellite cells Astrocytes Oligodendrocytes Schwann cells 18 / 40 18. Which neurotransmitter is associated with the "fight or flight" response? Serotonin Norepinephrine Dopamine GABA Acetylcholine 19 / 40 19. Which type of immunity is responsible for the production and release of antibodies? Humoral immunity Cell-mediated immunity Artificial immunity Passive immunity Innate immunity 20 / 40 20. Which type of leukocyte is responsible for the first part of the inflammatory response? Natural killer cells Neutrophils B cells Mast cells T cells 21 / 40 21. Which of the following is NOT a component of the bicarbonate buffering system? Carbon dioxide Bicarbonate anion Hemoglobin Carbonic acid Water 22 / 40 22. What is the primary function of the umbilical vein in fetal circulation? Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta Carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta Connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava Carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus Allows oxygen-poor blood to leave the pulmonary artery 23 / 40 23. Which of the following statements is true about blood clotting? It is an example of a negative feedback mechanism Platelets release thromboplastin to attract more platelets Exposed collagen triggers platelet activation Fibrinogen is an active form that forms the clot A clot is formed before platelets aggregate 24 / 40 24. What is the role of auxins in plant growth? They are responsible for stem and shoot elongation. They function during stress and inhibit growth. They increase fruit ripening. They cause cell growth and are responsible for plant tropisms. They regulate cell differentiation and division. 25 / 40 25. Which type of growth occurs at the apical meristems and leads to vertical growth in plants? Terminal growth Primary growth Tertiary growth Secondary growth Initial growth 26 / 40 26. Which type of chordate lacks a heart in its circulatory system? Fish (Bony) Tunicates Reptilia Lancelets Mammalia (Monotremes) 27 / 40 27. What does the term "competent" mean in the context of bacterial cloning? The bacteria can be easily stained The bacteria can undergo transformation The bacteria are resistant to antibiotics The bacteria can be easily viewed under a microscope The bacteria have a high growth rate 28 / 40 28. What is the process of creating millions of copies of DNA called? Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) Karyotyping Bacterial cloning Gel electrophoresis CRISPR 29 / 40 29. Which term refers to a sequence of DNA that codes for a trait? Genome Mutation Gene Allele Locus 30 / 40 30. What is the difference between incomplete dominance and codominance? Incomplete dominance expresses both alleles, while codominance has an intermediate state Incomplete dominance is when many genes are responsible for one trait, while codominance is when one gene is responsible for many traits Incomplete dominance has an intermediate state, while codominance expresses both alleles Incomplete dominance has multiple allele options, while codominance does not Incomplete dominance is when one gene affects the expression of another, while codominance is when one gene is responsible for many traits 31 / 40 31. What is the primary difference between the action of exonucleases and endonucleases on a polynucleotide chain? Exonucleases cleave nucleotides from the ends of the chain, while endonucleases cleave from the inside of the chain. Exonucleases aid in transcription, while endonucleases aid in translation. Exonucleases cleave nucleotides from the inside of the chain, while endonucleases cleave from the ends of the chain. Exonucleases add nucleotides to the ends of the chain, while endonucleases add nucleotides to the inside of the chain. Exonucleases remove the 5' cap, while endonucleases remove the poly A tail. 32 / 40 32. What happens during the G0 phase of the cell cycle? The cell checks for favorable conditions and, if unfavorable, it halts in the cell cycle. The cell replicates its genome. The cell grows in preparation for cell division. The cell prepares for cell division by checking DNA for any errors after replication. The cell divides into two daughter cells. 33 / 40 33. What happens in the prophase of mitosis? The physical separation of the cytoplasm and cell membrane into two daughter cells etochore microtubules shorten to pull sister chromatids apart Chromatin condenses into chromosomes The spindle apparatus guides the chromosomes to the metaphase plate Chromosomes have segregated and nuclear membranes reform 34 / 40 34. What is the main drawback in the process of C4 photosynthesis? The production of pyruvate that needs to be shuttled back to mesophyll cells using ATP energy. The release of CO2 in the mesophyll cells. The production of excess glucose. The spatial isolation of carbon dioxide. The production of excess oxygen. 35 / 40 35. In which part of the plant cell does the Calvin cycle take place? Thylakoid membrane Chloroplast stroma Nucleus Cytoplasm Mitochondria 36 / 40 36. In the Cori cycle, where does lactate get transported to be converted back into glucose? Red blood cells Liver cells Kidneys Mitochondria Muscle cells 37 / 40 37. What is the term used to describe the process by which a cell's cytoplasm shrinks away from the cell wall due to water loss from being in a hypertonic solution? Atrophy Hyperplasia Dysplasia Hypertrophy Plasmolysis 38 / 40 38. Which factor affects the fluidity of the cell membrane? The presence of carbohydrate chains The temperature and level of cholesterol and unsaturation of fatty acids The presence of adhesion proteins The level of membrane protein saturation The size of the hydrocarbon rings in cholesterol 39 / 40 39. What nitrogenous base is found in RNA instead of thymine? Cytosine (C) Thymine (T) Uracil (U) Adenine (A) Guanine (G) 40 / 40 40. What is the empirical formula of monosaccharides? CHO (CH2O)n C6H12O6 CH4O2 C2H4O2 Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback