DAT Biology Practice Test 1# (FREE) Click to go back see all Biology Practice Tests 0% DAT Biology Practice Test #1 1 / 40 1. The innate behavior where an animal responds to a stimulus without thought is known as: Instinct Fixed Action Pattern Imprinting Reflex Classical conditioning 2 / 40 2. What is the euphotic zone in aquatic biomes? The zone where bioluminescent species produce light The zone where sunlight penetrates all the way to the ocean floor The zone that is semi-irradiated with sun The zone with strong irradiance allowing for plant survival and photosynthesis The zone where there is no light or photosynthetic species 3 / 40 3. What does it mean for a species to be invasive? The species is native and helps other species thrive. The species is non-native and outcompetes native species, overtaking the ecosystem. The species is native and overtakes its own ecosystem. The species is harmful and toxic to other species. The species is non-native but does not overrun the ecosystem. 4 / 40 4. How do vestigial structures provide evidence for evolution? They perform the same function in different organisms. They are analogous to structures in other organisms. They develop as a result of use and disuse. They are homologous to functional structures in other organisms. They serve no purpose in the organism. 5 / 40 5. Which of the following best defines evolution? The consistent and unchanging distribution of traits in a population. The gradual development and change of heritable traits in populations over successive generations. The immediate adaptation of an organism to its environment. The development of an individual organism over its lifetime. The rapid change of traits in a single generation. 6 / 40 6. Which of the following reproductive methods involves offspring developing and hatching outside of the mother's body? Oviparity Ovoviviparity Parthenogenesis Viviparity Hermaphroditism 7 / 40 7. In which layer of the epidermis do keratinocyte stem cells proliferate? Stratum spinosum Stratum basale Stratum corneum Stratum granulosum Stratum lucidum 8 / 40 8. Where are eccrine glands located? Only in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet At specific sites such as the armpits and groin Only in the epidermis Only in the dermis Throughout the entire body surface 9 / 40 9. Which substances are almost completely reabsorbed by the nephron due to their importance in the body? Urea and waste products Water and salts Glucose and amino acids Na+ and Cl- Proteins and blood cells 10 / 40 10. What best describes the relationship between marine fish and their environment in terms of osmoregulation? Marine fish are hyperosmotic to their environment Marine fish are hypoosmotic to their environment Marine fish are isotonic to their environment Marine fish are hypotonic to their environment Marine fish are hypertonic to their environment 11 / 40 11. What is the role of enteropeptidase in digestion? It activates the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas It digests proteins to amino acids It digests fats to fatty acids It digests carbohydrates to simple sugars It converts trypsinogen to trypsin 12 / 40 12. What is the function of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? It decreases the rate of urination by increasing water retention. It increases the rate of urination. It decreases water retention. It has no effect on the rate of urination. It increases the number of aquaporins for water elimination. 13 / 40 13. What type of feedback loop promotes stability in the body by preventing hormone overproduction? Both positive and negative feedback Negative feedback Loop feedback Positive feedback Neither positive nor negative feedback 14 / 40 14. Which of the following types of cartilage is highly flexible and found in ears and epiglottis? Elastic cartilage Hyaline cartilage Fibrous cartilage B and C A and B 15 / 40 15. What is the function of the epiphysis in a long bone? It is a long, hollow shaft in the center of the bone. It contains blood vessels for nutrient supply. It is a small space between lamellae that holds bone cells. It is the area of fat storage within the medullary cavity. It is the end of a long bone that forms joints with other bones. 16 / 40 16. What is the deepest sheath that covers the muscle fibers? Perimysium Endomysium Sarcolemma Sarcoplasm Epimysium 17 / 40 17. What happens when a stimulus causes the threshold potential to be reached in a neuron? Voltage-gated Na+ channels open and let Na+ in, resulting in depolarization of the neuron Voltage-gated Cl- channels open and let Cl- into the cell Both A and B Voltage-gated K+ channels open and let K+ out of the cell Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open and let Ca2+ into the neuron 18 / 40 18. What is the function of the myelin sheath? To form the blood-brain barrier To receive signals from other neurons To help recycle neurotransmitters To produce cerebrospinal fluid To speed up action potential propagation 19 / 40 19. Which type of presentation involves T cells binding to antigens presented on APCs and then releasing interleukins to boost both innate immunity and adaptive immunity? Passive presentation MHC II presentation MHC I presentation Natural presentation Active presentation 20 / 40 20. Which of the following is an example of external immunity? Natural killer cells Complement proteins Mucous membranes Phagocytic cells Inflammatory response 21 / 40 21. What is the main intracellular buffer system in humans? Hemoglobin buffering system Carbonic acid buffering system Bicarbonate buffering system Phosphate buffering system Carbonic anhydrase buffering system 22 / 40 22. The sinoatrial (SA) node is responsible for initiating the cardiac cycle. Which of the following statements is true about it? It is responsible for adding a brief delay between the contraction of the atria and the contraction of the ventricles It is located in the upper wall of the left atrium It sends a signal to the bundle of His to initiate contraction It is located in the lower wall of the right atrium It is self-excitable and has the greatest automaticity 23 / 40 23. What is the correct formula for calculating cardiac output (CO)? CO = HR / SV CO = HR x SV CO = SV / HR CO = SV x TPR CO = HR + SV 24 / 40 24. What is a characteristic feature of bryophytes? They grow vertically to remain close to water and nutrients. They contain rhizoids which aid in water absorption and minor anchorage. They spend the majority of their life cycle in the sporophyte stage. They are vascular plants. They are found in dry habitats. 25 / 40 25. What is the first part of the embryo to emerge during the process of germination? Radicle Plumule Endosperm Hypocotyl Epicotyl 26 / 40 26. What is the primary mode of reproduction for organisms in the Platyhelminthes phylum? Parthenogenesis Asexual Sexual Both sexual and asexual Budding 27 / 40 27. How are DNA microarrays used in genomics research? To store genomic information. To sequence the genome of a new species. To replicate DNA sequences. To determine which genes are being expressed. To identify the location of genes on a chromosome. 28 / 40 28. What is the correct order of organelles from most dense to least dense in density centrifugation? Nuclei > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes > nuclei Mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > nuclei > ribosomes Nuclei > mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > ribosomes Ribosomes > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > nuclei 29 / 40 29. What is an example of polygenic inheritance? Baldness gene covering up the genes for hair color Cystic fibrosis with multiple symptoms caused by a single gene Height, a single trait affected by many genes ABO blood typing Red and white flowers producing pink offspring 30 / 40 30. What is the definition of heredity? The process of DNA replication The passing of traits from parents to offspring The observable traits that result from a genotype The process of protein synthesis The genetic composition of an organism 31 / 40 31. In the structure of nucleosomes, which histone holds the DNA in place? Histone H2A Histone H3 Histone H2B Histone H1 Histone H4 32 / 40 32. What are the sister chromatids in a dyad connected by? Centromeres Kinetochores Autosomes Sex chromosomes Microtubules 33 / 40 33. What is the function of the pericentriolar material? To start microtubule extension To check DNA for any errors after replication To pull sister chromatids apart during cell division To guide chromosomes during karyokinesis To separate sister chromatids in a dyad 34 / 40 34. What occurs during the process of non-cyclic photophosphorylation? ATP and NADPH are both generated. Only photosystem II is used. The Calvin cycle is activated. ATP is produced, and NADPH is not generated. Only photosystem I is used. 35 / 40 35. Which cells in the leaf structure are responsible for most of the photosynthesis? Spongy mesophyll cells Guard cells Epidermal cells Stomata Palisade mesophyll cells 36 / 40 36. What is the purpose of the electron transport chain in oxidative phosphorylation? To produce CO2 as a byproduct To pump protons into the mitochondrial matrix To convert ADP to ATP directly To regenerate electron carriers and create an electrochemical gradient to power ATP production To reduce NADH to NAD+ 37 / 40 37. What is the main difference between the structures of eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella? Prokaryotic flagella are produced by a basal body, while eukaryotic flagella are not. Eukaryotic flagella move in a rotary motion, while prokaryotic flagella move in a bending motion. Prokaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin and do not have a 9+2 array, while eukaryotic flagella do have this 9+2 array. Eukaryotic flagella have nine doublets of microtubules, while prokaryotic flagella have a 9+2 array. Eukaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin, while prokaryotic flagella are made of polymers of tubulin. 38 / 40 38. What is the main difference between an agonist and an antagonist in cell signaling? An agonist binds to adhesion proteins, while an antagonist binds to recognition proteins. An agonist is a glycoprotein, while an antagonist is not. An agonist introduces kinks in the lipid bilayer, while an antagonist does not. An agonist binds to receptors and activates a target function, while an antagonist prevents other molecules from binding. An agonist decreases the fluidity of the cell membrane, while an antagonist increases it. 39 / 40 39. Which of the following is a exception to the central dogma of genetics? RNA → proteins → DNA Proteins → RNA → DNA DNA → proteins → RNA RNA → DNA → proteins DNA → RNA → proteins 40 / 40 40. Which of the following is not a component of carbohydrates? Hydrogen Carbon Oxygen All of the above are components of carbohydrates Nitrogen Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter Restart quiz How did you find this practice test? Your feedback is appreciated Send feedback