DAT Biology Questions: 6 Free Practice Tests 2023

Are you looking for a quick way to practice what you have learned and prepare for DAT biology section?

Well, you came to the right place.

We have been working for the last several months on creating high-yield DAT Biology questions that can help anyone preparing for the DAT Biology test.

These are free DAT practice tests, no tricks or anything like that.

We want to help pre-dental students prepare for the DAT and what a better way than actually using some exam-like practice questions to test your knowledge of Biology.

By taking these DAT practice tests, you can identify areas where you need to improve, strengthen your knowledge base, and ultimately boost your DAT Biology score.

You will find below 6 DAT biology practice tests with each test having a total of 40 biology questions. The idea here is to simulate what you will be tested on when you take your DAT test.

As always, feel free to leave any feedback you have about these questions. Our goal is to improve these tests and provide more free similar practice tests.

DAT Biology Practice Test #1

1 / 40

1. The innate behavior where an animal responds to a stimulus without thought is known as:

Classical conditioning

Fixed Action Pattern

Reflex

Imprinting

Instinct

2 / 40

2. What is the euphotic zone in aquatic biomes?

The zone that is semi-irradiated with sun

The zone where bioluminescent species produce light

The zone with strong irradiance allowing for plant survival and photosynthesis

The zone where there is no light or photosynthetic species

The zone where sunlight penetrates all the way to the ocean floor

3 / 40

3. What does it mean for a species to be invasive?

The species is harmful and toxic to other species.

The species is non-native but does not overrun the ecosystem.

The species is native and overtakes its own ecosystem.

The species is non-native and outcompetes native species, overtaking the ecosystem.

The species is native and helps other species thrive.

4 / 40

4. How do vestigial structures provide evidence for evolution?

They perform the same function in different organisms.

They develop as a result of use and disuse.

They are homologous to functional structures in other organisms.

They serve no purpose in the organism.

They are analogous to structures in other organisms.

5 / 40

5. Which of the following best defines evolution?

The gradual development and change of heritable traits in populations over successive generations.

The rapid change of traits in a single generation.

The immediate adaptation of an organism to its environment.

The development of an individual organism over its lifetime.

The consistent and unchanging distribution of traits in a population.

6 / 40

6. Which of the following reproductive methods involves offspring developing and hatching outside of the mother's body?

Viviparity

Oviparity

Parthenogenesis

Ovoviviparity

Hermaphroditism

7 / 40

7. In which layer of the epidermis do keratinocyte stem cells proliferate?

Stratum spinosum

Stratum granulosum

Stratum corneum

Stratum basale

Stratum lucidum

8 / 40

8. Where are eccrine glands located?

Throughout the entire body surface

Only in the dermis

At specific sites such as the armpits and groin

Only in the epidermis

Only in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

9 / 40

9. Which substances are almost completely reabsorbed by the nephron due to their importance in the body?

Urea and waste products

Proteins and blood cells

Na+ and Cl-

Glucose and amino acids

Water and salts

10 / 40

10. What best describes the relationship between marine fish and their environment in terms of osmoregulation?

Marine fish are hyperosmotic to their environment

Marine fish are hypoosmotic to their environment

Marine fish are isotonic to their environment

Marine fish are hypertonic to their environment

Marine fish are hypotonic to their environment

11 / 40

11. What is the role of enteropeptidase in digestion?

It digests fats to fatty acids

It digests carbohydrates to simple sugars

It converts trypsinogen to trypsin

It digests proteins to amino acids

It activates the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas

12 / 40

12. What is the function of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

It increases the rate of urination.

It increases the number of aquaporins for water elimination.

It decreases water retention.

It decreases the rate of urination by increasing water retention.

It has no effect on the rate of urination.

13 / 40

13. What type of feedback loop promotes stability in the body by preventing hormone overproduction?

Loop feedback

Negative feedback

Both positive and negative feedback

Positive feedback

Neither positive nor negative feedback

14 / 40

14. Which of the following types of cartilage is highly flexible and found in ears and epiglottis?

Hyaline cartilage

B and C

A and B

Elastic cartilage

Fibrous cartilage

15 / 40

15. What is the function of the epiphysis in a long bone?

It is the area of fat storage within the medullary cavity.

It contains blood vessels for nutrient supply.

It is the end of a long bone that forms joints with other bones.

It is a long, hollow shaft in the center of the bone.

It is a small space between lamellae that holds bone cells.

16 / 40

16. What is the deepest sheath that covers the muscle fibers?

Perimysium

Epimysium

Sarcoplasm

Endomysium

Sarcolemma

17 / 40

17. What happens when a stimulus causes the threshold potential to be reached in a neuron?

Voltage-gated K+ channels open and let K+ out of the cell

Voltage-gated Cl- channels open and let Cl- into the cell

Both A and B

Voltage-gated Na+ channels open and let Na+ in, resulting in depolarization of the neuron

Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open and let Ca2+ into the neuron

18 / 40

18. What is the function of the myelin sheath?

To form the blood-brain barrier

To receive signals from other neurons

To speed up action potential propagation

To produce cerebrospinal fluid

To help recycle neurotransmitters

19 / 40

19. Which type of presentation involves T cells binding to antigens presented on APCs and then releasing interleukins to boost both innate immunity and adaptive immunity?

MHC II presentation

Passive presentation

Natural presentation

MHC I presentation

Active presentation

20 / 40

20. Which of the following is an example of external immunity?

Complement proteins

Phagocytic cells

Inflammatory response

Mucous membranes

Natural killer cells

21 / 40

21. What is the main intracellular buffer system in humans?

Phosphate buffering system

Carbonic anhydrase buffering system

Carbonic acid buffering system

Bicarbonate buffering system

Hemoglobin buffering system

22 / 40

22. The sinoatrial (SA) node is responsible for initiating the cardiac cycle. Which of the following statements is true about it?

It is located in the lower wall of the right atrium

It is located in the upper wall of the left atrium

It is responsible for adding a brief delay between the contraction of the atria and the contraction of the ventricles

It is self-excitable and has the greatest automaticity

It sends a signal to the bundle of His to initiate contraction

23 / 40

23. What is the correct formula for calculating cardiac output (CO)?

CO = HR + SV

CO = HR x SV

CO = HR / SV

CO = SV / HR

CO = SV x TPR

24 / 40

24. What is a characteristic feature of bryophytes?

They spend the majority of their life cycle in the sporophyte stage.

They are found in dry habitats.

They contain rhizoids which aid in water absorption and minor anchorage.

They are vascular plants.

They grow vertically to remain close to water and nutrients.

25 / 40

25. What is the first part of the embryo to emerge during the process of germination?

Hypocotyl

Radicle

Epicotyl

Plumule

Endosperm

26 / 40

26. What is the primary mode of reproduction for organisms in the Platyhelminthes phylum?

Budding

Asexual

Sexual

Both sexual and asexual

Parthenogenesis

27 / 40

27. How are DNA microarrays used in genomics research?

To store genomic information.

To sequence the genome of a new species.

To identify the location of genes on a chromosome.

To determine which genes are being expressed.

To replicate DNA sequences.

28 / 40

28. What is the correct order of organelles from most dense to least dense in density centrifugation?

ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes > nuclei

Ribosomes > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > nuclei

Nuclei > ER fragments > mitochondria/chloroplast > ribosomes

Mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > nuclei > ribosomes

Nuclei > mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments > ribosomes

29 / 40

29. What is an example of polygenic inheritance?

Cystic fibrosis with multiple symptoms caused by a single gene

ABO blood typing

Height, a single trait affected by many genes

Red and white flowers producing pink offspring

Baldness gene covering up the genes for hair color

30 / 40

30. What is the definition of heredity?

The observable traits that result from a genotype

The process of DNA replication

The passing of traits from parents to offspring

The process of protein synthesis

The genetic composition of an organism

31 / 40

31. In the structure of nucleosomes, which histone holds the DNA in place?

Histone H2A

Histone H4

Histone H1

Histone H3

Histone H2B

32 / 40

32. What are the sister chromatids in a dyad connected by?

Centromeres

Sex chromosomes

Autosomes

Kinetochores

Microtubules

33 / 40

33. What is the function of the pericentriolar material?

To separate sister chromatids in a dyad

To start microtubule extension

To guide chromosomes during karyokinesis

To pull sister chromatids apart during cell division

To check DNA for any errors after replication

34 / 40

34. What occurs during the process of non-cyclic photophosphorylation?

ATP is produced, and NADPH is not generated.

Only photosystem I is used.

Only photosystem II is used.

The Calvin cycle is activated.

ATP and NADPH are both generated.

35 / 40

35. Which cells in the leaf structure are responsible for most of the photosynthesis?

Stomata

Palisade mesophyll cells

Epidermal cells

Guard cells

Spongy mesophyll cells

36 / 40

36. What is the purpose of the electron transport chain in oxidative phosphorylation?

To produce CO2 as a byproduct

To convert ADP to ATP directly

To reduce NADH to NAD+

To regenerate electron carriers and create an electrochemical gradient to power ATP production

To pump protons into the mitochondrial matrix

37 / 40

37. What is the main difference between the structures of eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella?

Prokaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin and do not have a 9+2 array, while eukaryotic flagella do have this 9+2 array.

Eukaryotic flagella are composed of polymers of flagellin, while prokaryotic flagella are made of polymers of tubulin.

Eukaryotic flagella move in a rotary motion, while prokaryotic flagella move in a bending motion.

Prokaryotic flagella are produced by a basal body, while eukaryotic flagella are not.

Eukaryotic flagella have nine doublets of microtubules, while prokaryotic flagella have a 9+2 array.

38 / 40

38. What is the main difference between an agonist and an antagonist in cell signaling?

An agonist introduces kinks in the lipid bilayer, while an antagonist does not.

An agonist binds to adhesion proteins, while an antagonist binds to recognition proteins.

An agonist is a glycoprotein, while an antagonist is not.

An agonist decreases the fluidity of the cell membrane, while an antagonist increases it.

An agonist binds to receptors and activates a target function, while an antagonist prevents other molecules from binding.

39 / 40

39. Which of the following is a exception to the central dogma of genetics?

DNA → proteins → RNA

RNA → DNA → proteins

RNA → proteins → DNA

Proteins → RNA → DNA

DNA → RNA → proteins

40 / 40

40. Which of the following is not a component of carbohydrates?

Hydrogen

All of the above are components of carbohydrates

Carbon

Nitrogen

Oxygen

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DAT Biology Practice Test #2

1 / 40

1. What is the term for the behavior used to protect an animal's territory or safe space?

Altruistic behavior

Search images

Territoriality

Agonistic behavior

Sexual selection

2 / 40

2. Who are the primary consumers in an ecosystem?

Carnivores that prey on herbivores.

Organisms that generate their own food through photosynthesis.

Organisms that consume dead or decaying organic material.

Organisms just above the producers in the food chain, often herbivores.

Organisms at the top of the food chain, preying on secondary consumers.

3 / 40

3. What role do decomposers play in an ecosystem?

They eat other consumers.

They prey on two species simultaneously.

They compete with other species for mutual resources.

They break down and recycle dead plant or animal material.

They undergo photosynthesis to generate energy.

4 / 40

4. What does "anagenesis" describe in evolutionary biology?

The splitting apart of evolutionary lineages

The process of unrelated species adapting to similar environments

The process of two species imparting selective pressure on each other

The gradual evolution of an interbreeding population without splitting

The process of different phenotypes becoming isolated within the same area

5 / 40

5. According to the theory of punctuated equilibrium, how does evolution occur?

Through continuous adaptation of species to their environments

By short spurts of evolutionary changes during periods of stasis

Rapidly during periods of stasis

Slowly and gradually via accumulation of small intermediary changes

Due to a variety of phenotypes within a population

6 / 40

6. What is the function of the notochord during neurulation?

It stimulates ectoderm to thicken, forming the neural plate.

It differentiates into the Central Nervous System (CNS).

It forms the vertebrae and skeletal muscles associated with axial skeleton.

It forms the neural crest cells.

It forms the neural tube.

7 / 40

7. Which type of gland is not found in the palms of hands and soles of feet?

Sebaceous gland

Sweat gland

Apocrine gland

Eccrine gland

None of the above

8 / 40

8. What is the function of the hypodermis?

It produces sweat for thermoregulation

It generates hair follicles

It synthesizes vitamin D

It is the main site for fat storage

It protects against UV radiation

9 / 40

9. Which of the following best describes the role of renin in the Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System (RAAS)?

It stimulates additional aldosterone release from the adrenal gland cortex.

It is an enzyme that acts on angiotensinogen to activate it to the form angiotensin I.

It is a potent systemic vasoconstrictor.

It stimulates the sympathetic nervous system.

It increases Na+ reabsorption from the proximal tubule.

10 / 40

10. Where does filtration primarily occur in the nephron?

Loop of Henle

Proximal convoluted tubule

Glomerulus and the Bowman’s capsule

Distal convoluted tubule

Collecting duct

11 / 40

11. How does the liver handle the dangerous byproduct of protein metabolism, ammonia?

It converts ammonia into albumin

It converts ammonia into urea

It converts ammonia into bilirubin

It converts ammonia into glucose

It converts ammonia into glycogen

12 / 40

12. In females, which hormone during the menstrual cycle causes ovulation?

Testosterone

FSH

Progesterone

Estrogen

13 / 40

13. The hormone FSH in males stimulates what?

Sperm maturation

Testosterone production

Glucose storage

Fight or flight response

Blood glucose level increase

14 / 40

14. Which of the following hormones increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts and depressing osteoblasts?

Parathyroid hormone

Calcitonin

Growth hormone

Vitamin D

Thyroid hormone

15 / 40

15. What is the function of the epiphyseal plate?

To lengthen the diaphysis through growth and ossification

To contain red bone marrow for hematopoiesis

To store fat in the medullary cavity

To provide protection for the organs

To provide support for the body

16 / 40

16. Which of the following statements accurately describes the I band?

The I band is the midpoint of the sarcomere.

The I band is the area in the sarcomere where actin and myosin overlap.

The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only actin filaments are present.

The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only thin actin filaments are present.

The I band is the area in the sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present.

17 / 40

17. What type of cells form the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system?

Schwann cells

Satellite cells

Oligodendrocytes

Ependymal cells

Astrocytes

18 / 40

18. Which neurotransmitter is associated with the "fight or flight" response?

Acetylcholine

Norepinephrine

Serotonin

GABA

Dopamine

19 / 40

19. Which type of immunity is responsible for the production and release of antibodies?

Cell-mediated immunity

Innate immunity

Humoral immunity

Artificial immunity

Passive immunity

20 / 40

20. Which type of leukocyte is responsible for the first part of the inflammatory response?

Neutrophils

B cells

Mast cells

T cells

Natural killer cells

21 / 40

21. Which of the following is NOT a component of the bicarbonate buffering system?

Bicarbonate anion

Carbonic acid

Hemoglobin

Carbon dioxide

Water

22 / 40

22. What is the primary function of the umbilical vein in fetal circulation?

Allows oxygen-poor blood to leave the pulmonary artery

Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta

Carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta

Carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus

Connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava

23 / 40

23. Which of the following statements is true about blood clotting?

It is an example of a negative feedback mechanism

Exposed collagen triggers platelet activation

Platelets release thromboplastin to attract more platelets

Fibrinogen is an active form that forms the clot

A clot is formed before platelets aggregate

24 / 40

24. What is the role of auxins in plant growth?

They regulate cell differentiation and division.

They increase fruit ripening.

They cause cell growth and are responsible for plant tropisms.

They are responsible for stem and shoot elongation.

They function during stress and inhibit growth.

25 / 40

25. Which type of growth occurs at the apical meristems and leads to vertical growth in plants?

Terminal growth

Secondary growth

Tertiary growth

Initial growth

Primary growth

26 / 40

26. Which type of chordate lacks a heart in its circulatory system?

Lancelets

Mammalia (Monotremes)

Fish (Bony)

Reptilia

Tunicates

27 / 40

27. What does the term "competent" mean in the context of bacterial cloning?

The bacteria can be easily stained

The bacteria are resistant to antibiotics

The bacteria can be easily viewed under a microscope

The bacteria have a high growth rate

The bacteria can undergo transformation

28 / 40

28. What is the process of creating millions of copies of DNA called?

Bacterial cloning

Karyotyping

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

Gel electrophoresis

CRISPR

29 / 40

29. Which term refers to a sequence of DNA that codes for a trait?

Gene

Genome

Locus

Allele

Mutation

30 / 40

30. What is the difference between incomplete dominance and codominance?

Incomplete dominance has multiple allele options, while codominance does not

Incomplete dominance is when one gene affects the expression of another, while codominance is when one gene is responsible for many traits

Incomplete dominance has an intermediate state, while codominance expresses both alleles

Incomplete dominance is when many genes are responsible for one trait, while codominance is when one gene is responsible for many traits

Incomplete dominance expresses both alleles, while codominance has an intermediate state

31 / 40

31. What is the primary difference between the action of exonucleases and endonucleases on a polynucleotide chain?

Exonucleases add nucleotides to the ends of the chain, while endonucleases add nucleotides to the inside of the chain.

Exonucleases cleave nucleotides from the ends of the chain, while endonucleases cleave from the inside of the chain.

Exonucleases aid in transcription, while endonucleases aid in translation.

Exonucleases cleave nucleotides from the inside of the chain, while endonucleases cleave from the ends of the chain.

Exonucleases remove the 5' cap, while endonucleases remove the poly A tail.

32 / 40

32. What happens during the G0 phase of the cell cycle?

The cell prepares for cell division by checking DNA for any errors after replication.

The cell grows in preparation for cell division.

The cell divides into two daughter cells.

The cell replicates its genome.

The cell checks for favorable conditions and, if unfavorable, it halts in the cell cycle.

33 / 40

33. What happens in the prophase of mitosis?

Chromosomes have segregated and nuclear membranes reform

The physical separation of the cytoplasm and cell membrane into two daughter cells

The spindle apparatus guides the chromosomes to the metaphase plate

etochore microtubules shorten to pull sister chromatids apart

Chromatin condenses into chromosomes

34 / 40

34. What is the main drawback in the process of C4 photosynthesis?

The production of excess glucose.

The release of CO2 in the mesophyll cells.

The spatial isolation of carbon dioxide.

The production of excess oxygen.

The production of pyruvate that needs to be shuttled back to mesophyll cells using ATP energy.

35 / 40

35. In which part of the plant cell does the Calvin cycle take place?

Cytoplasm

Thylakoid membrane

Mitochondria

Chloroplast stroma

Nucleus

36 / 40

36. In the Cori cycle, where does lactate get transported to be converted back into glucose?

Red blood cells

Kidneys

Liver cells

Mitochondria

Muscle cells

37 / 40

37. What is the term used to describe the process by which a cell's cytoplasm shrinks away from the cell wall due to water loss from being in a hypertonic solution?

Hypertrophy

Hyperplasia

Atrophy

Dysplasia

Plasmolysis

38 / 40

38. Which factor affects the fluidity of the cell membrane?

The size of the hydrocarbon rings in cholesterol

The presence of carbohydrate chains

The temperature and level of cholesterol and unsaturation of fatty acids

The presence of adhesion proteins

The level of membrane protein saturation

39 / 40

39. What nitrogenous base is found in RNA instead of thymine?

Adenine (A)

Thymine (T)

Cytosine (C)

Guanine (G)

Uracil (U)

40 / 40

40. What is the empirical formula of monosaccharides?

CHO

C6H12O6

C2H4O2

CH4O2

(CH2O)n

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DAT Biology Practice Test #3

1 / 40

1. Which type of mating involves mating once in a lifetime and producing multiple offspring without parental care?

Polygyny

Monogamy

Polyandry

Semelparity

Polygamy

2 / 40

2. Which of the following behaviors is most accurately classified as a Fixed Action Pattern?

A flatworm increasing its speed when exposed to light.

An animal responding to a stimulus more frequently as the stimulus occurs more often.

Ducklings following a moving object, believing it to be their mother.

A bird migrating in response to seasonal changes.

A goose rolling an egg back into its nest.

3 / 40

3. What happens to the energy stored in a trophic level as it is transferred to the next trophic level?

It is equally distributed among all the organisms in the next trophic level.

All of it is transferred to the next trophic level.

Only about 10% of it is converted to organic tissue in the next trophic level.

All of it is lost as heat.

Approximately 90% of it is converted to organic tissue in the next trophic level.

4 / 40

4. What does a cladogram represent?

The accumulation of small intermediary changes in a species

The genetic variation within a population

The inferred evolutionary relationships among various biological species

The genetic drift in a population

The inherited traits of a species

5 / 40

5. Which of the following is not an example of prezygotic isolation?

Behavioral Isolation

Mechanical Isolation

Temporal Isolation

Habitat Isolation

Hybrid Sterility

6 / 40

6. Regarding stem cells, which of the following is the correct sequence from most potent to least potent?

Multipotent, Pluripotent, Totipotent

Totipotent, Pluripotent, Multipotent

Pluripotent, Multipotent, Totipotent

Pluripotent, Totipotent, Multipotent

Multipotent, Totipotent, Pluripotent

7 / 40

7. Which of the following accurately describes binary fission?

An unfertilized egg develops into a viable organism.

Germ cells produce gametes via meiosis.

DNA is replicated and migrates to opposite ends of the cell, and then the cell separates into two.

A piece of the organism breaks off, and it can regenerate the broken piece.

A bud forms on the organism, and DNA is replicated and deposited into the bud.

8 / 40

8. Which layer of the epidermis is important for strength and immunity?

Basale

Corneum

Lucidum

Spinosum

Granulosum

9 / 40

9. What is the primary function of Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) when released by atrial cells?

It is a potent systemic vasoconstrictor.

It increases Na+ reabsorption from the proximal tubule.

It stimulates additional aldosterone release from the adrenal gland cortex.

It reduces blood volume and blood pressure.

It causes aquaporins to insert into the collecting duct of the nephron.

10 / 40

10. What is the primary force driving filtration in Bowman’s capsule?

Hydrostatic pressure from the blood

Gravity

Passive transport

Active transport

Osmotic pressure

11 / 40

11. What does the liver do when glycogen stores are depleted?

Gluconeogenesis

Glycogenesis

Hormone synthesis

Detoxification

Protein synthesis

12 / 40

12. Which of the following best describes the role of pseudopodia in amoebas?

They form the amoeba's cell wall.

They allow the amoeba to communicate with other cells.

They aid in the amoeba's movement.

They are temporary protrusions used for cell movement and feeding.

They are used for extracellular digestion.

13 / 40

13. What does the hormone aldosterone function to do?

Decrease blood volume and blood pressure

Decrease blood glucose levels

Regulate the menstrual cycle

Increase blood glucose levels

Increase blood volume and blood pressure

14 / 40

14. Which of the following cell types is responsible for bone resorption during bone remodeling?

Osteocytes

Monocytes

Osteoclasts

Osteoprogenitors

Osteoblasts

15 / 40

15. What is the function of cancellous bone?

To support the weight of the body

To soak up red bone marrow via a web of trabeculae

To provide protection for the organs

To store fat in the medullary cavity

To synthesize blood cells

16 / 40

16. Which of the following types of motor units is used for powerful movements?

Small motor units with a low ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers

Large motor units with a low ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers

None of the above

Small motor units with a high ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers

Large motor units with a high ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers

17 / 40

17. Which of the following statements is true regarding the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction?

Myofilaments slide past each other to shorten sarcomeres.

Graded potentials are produced by the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels.

Actin and myosin filaments contract independently of each other.

Troponin removes tropomyosin from the actin-binding sites, allowing actin and myosin to bind.

The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions into the sarcomere through ligand-gated calcium channels.

18 / 40

18. Which neurotransmitter is associated with reward, pleasure, and addiction?

GABA

Acetylcholine

Norepinephrine

Dopamine

Serotonin

19 / 40

19. What is the function of platelets in the innate immune system?

To neutralize pathogens that have entered the body

To produce histamine

To kill parasites

To regulate macrophages and dendritic cells

To attack virally-infected cells

20 / 40

20. Which type of leukocyte makes up over half of all leukocytes?

B cells

Basophils

Eosinophils

T cells

Neutrophils

21 / 40

21. Which of the following is NOT a reason for a left-shifted oxygen dissociation curve?

Increased pH

Fetal hemoglobin

Increased body temperature

All of the above are reasons for a left-shifted curve

Low partial pressure of carbon dioxide

22 / 40

22. Which of the following is true about respiration in Cnidaria?

Gas exchange happens mainly through the tracheal system

They have a closed circulatory system

They use slimy mucus to facilitate the transport of oxygen into their open circulatory system.

They have gills

They use simple diffusion

23 / 40

23. Which type of blood can receive blood from any donor?

Type B

Type A

None of the above

Type AB

Type O

24 / 40

24. What is the function of the Casparian strip in the roots of plants?

It facilitates the movement of water from soil into the roots.

It increases the surface area of roots for greater nutrient and water uptake.

It forces water coming from the cell walls into the cytoplasm for filtering.

It prevents the growth of roots.

It aids in photosynthesis.

25 / 40

25. Which type of cell in the xylem allows for water transport through pits in their tapered ends?

Sieve cells

Vessel elements

Tracheids

Companion cells

Parenchyma cells

26 / 40

26. Which of the following chordates have a two-chambered heart?

Birds

Mammalia (Monotremes)

Fish (Cartilaginous)

Reptilia

Mammalia (Placental)

27 / 40

27. What is the primary distinguishing feature between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

Cell wall

Presence of ribosomes

Membrane-bound organelles

Ability to produce endospores

The process of DNA replication

28 / 40

28. What type of blotting is used to identify fragments of known RNA?

Eastern blotting

Northern blotting

Southern blotting

Western blotting

DNA

29 / 40

29. What does the term "heterozygous" mean?

Only one allele is present

One copy of the gene is lost or nonfunctional

Two different copies of the same chromosome

The same allele in both homologs

One dominant allele and one recessive allele in a homologous pair

30 / 40

30. What is the role of proto-oncogenes in cancer development?

They prevent cells from becoming cancerous

They suppress cancerous growth

They cause cancer due to loss-of-function mutations

They become oncogenes due to gain-of-function mutations

They inhibit phosphorylation activity

31 / 40

31. Which of the following is not a potential outcome of base substitutions (point mutations) in DNA?

Frameshift mutations

Silent mutations

Missense mutations

All are potential outcomes of base substitutions.

Nonsense mutations

32 / 40

32. How does acetylation of histones affect gene transcription?

It increases transcription by tightening DNA-histone attractions.

It does not affect gene transcription.

It decreases transcription by loosening DNA-histone attractions.

It randomly increases or decreases transcription.

It increases transcription by relaxing DNA-histone attractions.

33 / 40

33. What distinguishes meiosis I from meiosis II?

Meiosis I is a reductional division, while meiosis II is an equational division.

Meiosis I results in four daughter cells, while meiosis II results in two daughter cells.

Meiosis I only occurs in animals, while meiosis II only occurs in plants.

Meiosis I begins with a haploid cell, while meiosis II begins with a diploid cell.

Meiosis I involves separation of sister chromatids, while meiosis II involves separation of homologous chromosomes.

34 / 40

34. What is the primary function of RuBisCo in the process of photosynthesis?

It aids in the process of photolysis.

It converts oxygen into carbon dioxide.

It facilitates the fixation of carbon dioxide into RuBP.

It helps in the transportation of water in the plant.

It helps in the creation of ATP.

35 / 40

35. What is the main difference between C4 photosynthesis and CAM photosynthesis?

C4 photosynthesis is not used by any plants, while CAM photosynthesis is used by all plants.

C4 photosynthesis occurs only in hot environments, while CAM photosynthesis occurs in all environments.

C4 photosynthesis uses spatial isolation of carbon dioxide, while CAM photosynthesis uses temporal isolation.

C4 photosynthesis and CAM photosynthesis are the same process.

C4 photosynthesis uses temporal isolation of carbon dioxide, while CAM photosynthesis uses spatial isolation.

36 / 40

36. Alcohol fermentation includes an extra step compared to lactic acid fermentation. What does this step involve?

The conversion of NADH to NAD+

The conversion of acetaldehyde into ethanol

The reduction of pyruvate into acetaldehyde

The decarboxylation of pyruvate into acetaldehyde

The oxidation of pyruvate into lactic acid

37 / 40

37. What is the key difference between catabolic and anabolic processes in an organism's metabolism?

Catabolic processes involve breaking down larger molecules for energy while anabolic processes involve using energy to build larger macromolecules.

Anabolic processes consume oxygen while catabolic processes do not require oxygen.

Catabolic processes involve the synthesis of ATP while anabolic processes involve the breakdown of ATP.

Anabolic processes involve breaking down larger molecules for energy while catabolic processes involve using energy to build larger macromolecules.

Catabolic processes consume energy while anabolic processes produce energy.

38 / 40

38. Which of the following best describes the role of the sodium-potassium pump in the cell?

It is a type of facilitated transport that uses a channel protein to allow ions to flow down their concentration gradient.

It is a type of secondary active transport that uses the energy released when other molecules flow down their concentration gradient.

It is a type of passive diffusion that uses a carrier protein to bring molecules down their concentration gradient.

It is a type of active transport that uses ATP hydrolysis to pump molecules against their concentration gradient.

It is a type of simple diffusion that allows small, uncharged molecules to flow down their concentration gradient.

39 / 40

39. Which of the following statements is NOT part of modern cell theory?

The cell is the basic structural, functional, and organizational unit of life.

An organism’s activity is dependent on the total activity of its independent cells.

All lifeforms have one or more cells.

Genetic information is stored and passed down through DNA.

All cells come from non-living matter.

40 / 40

40. What is the difference between amylose and amylopectin?

Amylose is a monosaccharide while amylopectin is a disaccharide

Amylose contains glucose and fructose, while amylopectin contains only glucose

Amylose is branched while amylopectin is linear

Amylose is linear while amylopectin is branched

There is no difference between amylose and amylopectin

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DAT Biology Practice Test #4

1 / 40

1. Which term refers to a behavior where one animal's threat causes another animal's submission, thus preventing aggression?

Appeasement behavior

Territoriality

Cooperative hunting

Reciprocal altruism

Dominance Hierarchy

2 / 40

2. A behavioral response that decreases in response to a repetitive, meaningless stimulus is known as:

Recovery

Stimulus generalization

Sensitization

Habituation

Extinction

3 / 40

3. What is the principle of Malthus's population theory?

Population increases geometrically while food production increases arithmetically

Population increases arithmetically while food production increases geometrically

Population and food production both increase arithmetically

Population increases geometrically while food production increases exponentially

Population and food production both increase geometrically

4 / 40

4. What is the result of sympatric speciation?

Species evolve to resemble another species

Species arise from one ancestor as they adapt differently to their environments

Different phenotypes are isolated within the same area

Species are reproductively isolated via prezygotic and postzygotic isolating mechanisms

Species diverge due to a geographical barrier

5 / 40

5. What is a 'polytomy' in the context of a phylogenetic tree?

An ancestor and some but not all of its descendants

An ancestor and all its descendants

The splitting apart of evolutionary lineages

An internal node of a phylogenetic tree that leads to more than two tips

The gradual evolution of an interbreeding population without splitting

6 / 40

6. What is the role of the mesoderm layer in a trilaminar embryo?

It forms the sensory parts of the ear, eye, and nose

It forms the epithelial lining of the digestive, respiratory, and excretory systems

It forms the Central Nervous System (CNS) and Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

It forms the bone and skeleton, muscles, cardiovascular system, and gonads

It forms the pigmentation cells and the enamel of teeth

7 / 40

7. Which hormone is responsible for the maturation of sperm and the development of male secondary sex characteristics?

Estrogen

Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

Testosterone

Progesterone

8 / 40

8. What are the two layers of the dermis?

Basal dermis and spinous dermis

Lucid dermis and reticular dermis

Papillary dermis and reticular dermis

Papillary dermis and cornified dermis

Papillary dermis and granular dermis

9 / 40

9. What occurs as the filtrate travels down the descending limb of the loop of Henle?

Na+ and Cl- are reabsorbed

Solutes are reabsorbed

Water is reabsorbed into the blood

Filtrate becomes more alkaline

Filtrate becomes less concentrated

10 / 40

10. How does the length of the nephron affect the concentration of urine?

The longer the nephron, the more diluted the urine will be

The longer the nephron, the more concentrated the urine will be

The shorter the nephron, the more concentrated the urine will be

The shorter the nephron, the more diluted the urine will be

The length of the nephron has no effect on urine concentration

11 / 40

11. Which hormone is responsible for slowing gastric emptying and stimulating the release of digestive enzymes and bile?

Gastrin

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

Secretin

Glucagon

Insulin

12 / 40

12. What is the primary function of G cells in the stomach during digestion?

They facilitate mechanical digestion through the churning of food.

They secrete gastric lipase and pepsinogen.

They produce the basic bicarbonate ions that neutralize stomach acid.

They produce mucus to protect the stomach lining.

They release gastrin, a hormone that stimulates the release of gastric juice and the secretion of enzymes.

13 / 40

13. Which of the following is the most common cause of goiter?

Hyperthyroidism

Hypothyroidism

Excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH)

High blood calcium levels

Iodine deficiency

14 / 40

14. Which type of bone is found within tendons to help muscles pull?

Irregular bones

Long bones

Short bones

Flat bones

Sesamoid bones

15 / 40

15. What is the function of Volkmann's canals?

To provide support for the body

To store fat in the medullary cavity

To synthesize blood cells

To connect lacunae and the haversian canal

To connect the haversian canals to the periosteum

16 / 40

16. Which of the following statements accurately describes the process of wave summation?

Wave summation occurs when a depolarization is below threshold potential.

Wave summation is the process by which different motor units are stimulated at different times to produce the intended amount of muscle contraction.

Wave summation is also known as the size principle of motor unit recruitment.

Wave summation is the process by which twitches add up to create a larger overall contraction.

Wave summation occurs when a depolarization is above threshold potential.

17 / 40

17. Which type of muscle is characterized by involuntary contractions?

None of the above

Skeletal muscle

Cardiac muscle

Both smooth and cardiac muscle

Smooth muscle

18 / 40

18. Which part of the ear helps convert mechanical signals into neuronal signals?

Outer ear

Round window

Inner ear

Semicircular canal

Middle ear

19 / 40

19. Which type of T cell is responsible for directly killing infected cells?

Memory T cells

CD8 T cells

Natural killer cells

CD4 T cells

Helper T cells

20 / 40

20. Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation?

Swelling

Increased heat

Loss of function

Numbness

Redness

21 / 40

21. Which of the following is true about carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning?

It increases oxygen binding affinity

It does not affect oxygen transport efficiency

It produces carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO2)

It results from oxygen outcompeting CO for hemoglobin binding

It produces carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO).

22 / 40

22. What is the difference between the left and right lungs in humans?

The left and right lungs are identical in size and shape.

The left lung is smaller and has one lobe, while the right lung is larger and has two lobes

The left lung is smaller and has two lobes, while the right lung is larger and has three lobes

The left lung is larger and has two lobes, while the right lung is smaller and has one lobe

The left lung is larger and has three lobes, while the right lung is smaller and has two lobes

23 / 40

23. What is erythroblastosis fetalis?

A condition where the mother’s body attacks the fetus because of a blood type mismatch

A condition where the fetus is unable to produce red blood cells

A condition where the mother’s Rh factor is negative

A condition where the placenta does not function properly

A condition where the fetus’ blood type is AB

24 / 40

24. Which theory explains the upward movement of water in plants due to transpiration?

Capillary action

Cohesion-tension theory

Root pressure theory

Source to Sink theory

Pressure flow hypothesis

25 / 40

25. What type of plant tissue provides protection and regulation and includes the epidermis and root hairs?

Dermal tissue

Vascular tissue

Cambium tissue

Ground tissue

Stomatal tissue

26 / 40

26. Which phylum is characterized by five-fold radial symmetry as adults?

Arthropoda

Echinodermata

Cnidaria

Annelida

Mollusca

27 / 40

27. What is the main difference between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria?

The ability to secrete exotoxins

The presence of an outer membrane

The presence of a peptidoglycan layer

The staining color in gram staining

The thickness of the peptidoglycan layer

28 / 40

28. What is the purpose of a genomic library?

To store the RNA of an organism's genome.

To facilitate the replication of an organism's genome.

To store all known species' genomes.

To store the DNA of an organism's genome.

To identify the protein structures of an organism.

29 / 40

29. What does gene linkage refer to?

The process where a single gene is examined through two generations of crosses.

The process of crossing over during prophase I of meiosis.

Genes that are found close together on the same chromosome.

The process where two organisms are mated to produce offspring.

The process where two genes are randomly assorted in progeny.

30 / 40

30. What is the one-hit hypothesis associated with?

Incomplete penetrance

Tumor-suppressor genes

Proto-oncogenes

Retinoblastoma gene

Null alleles

31 / 40

31. What is the purpose of the G1/S checkpoint in the cell cycle?

It initiates DNA replication.

It regulates the termination of transcription.

It regulates cell cycle transition from the G1 phase into the S phase, checking for favorable conditions to grow.

It induces transcription of genes.

It ends DNA replication when the replication fork cannot continue.

32 / 40

32. In which direction does RNA polymerase extend the RNA during transcription?

Both a and b

3’ → 5’

5’ → 5’

3’ → 3’

5’ → 3’

33 / 40

33. In terms of regulation, what is the role of cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) in the cell cycle?

They phosphorylate certain substrates to signal cell cycle progression.

They halt cell division when the density of cells is high.

They bind to receptors in the plasma membrane to signal for cell division.

They prevent cells from dividing unless attached to an external surface.

They act as checkpoints to assess DNA replication accuracy and MPF levels.

34 / 40

34. What is the primary difference between C4 and CAM photosynthesis?

C4 photosynthesis involves the production of a four-carbon molecule, while CAM does not.

There is no significant difference between C4 and CAM photosynthesis.

C4 photosynthesis occurs in plants living in hot environments, while CAM occurs in plants living in cold environments.

CAM photosynthesis uses temporal isolation of carbon dioxide, while C4 uses spatial isolation.

CAM photosynthesis uses spatial isolation of carbon dioxide, while C4 uses temporal isolation.

35 / 40

35. What is the role of chlorophyll in the photosynthesis process?

Chlorophyll is not involved in the photosynthesis process.

Chlorophyll is responsible for the conversion of glucose to ATP.

Chlorophyll is involved in the absorption of photons.

Chlorophyll is responsible for the release of oxygen.

Chlorophyll is involved in carbon fixation.

36 / 40

36. What function do High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) serve in the body?

They transport cholesterol to peripheral tissues

They transport cholesterol to the liver to make bile

They help release triglycerides back into circulation

They store triglycerides

They convert triglycerides into free fatty acids

37 / 40

37. Why is ATP considered the cellular energy currency?

It is more stable than ADP.

It contains an adenine nitrogenous base.

It has high energy bonds between the phosphate groups that release energy upon hydrolysis.

It is used to fuel all cellular processes.

It contains three phosphate groups.

38 / 40

38. What role does clathrin play in the transport of substances across the cell membrane?

It aids in facilitated transport by acting as a channel protein.

It aids in active transport by using ATP hydrolysis to pump molecules against their concentration gradient.

It aids in exocytosis by allowing vesicles to secrete material into the extracellular environment.

It aids in simple diffusion by allowing small, uncharged substances to cross the cell membrane.

It aids in endocytosis by forming a pit in the membrane that pinches off as a coated vesicle.

39 / 40

39. Which of the following statements is true about catalysts?

They affect the transition state of a reaction

They increase the spontaneity of a reaction

They shift a chemical reaction to the left

They raise the activation energy of a reaction

They do not affect the energy of the transition state

40 / 40

40. What is the definition of an element?

A mixture of two or more compounds.

A mixture of two or more elements.

A pure substance that has specific physical/chemical properties and can be broken down into a simpler substance.

A pure substance that has no physical/chemical properties.

A pure substance that has specific physical/chemical properties and can’t be broken down into a simpler substance.

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DAT Biology Practice Test #5

1 / 40

1. What does the concept of "inclusive fitness" refer to?

Grouping together to achieve a goal

Maximizing the quality of mates and offspring

Sacrifices made for relatives

Maximizing the quantity of offspring

Abbreviating what food looks like to locate it quickly

2 / 40

2. In the context of animal behaviors, what does the term "stimulus discrimination" mean?

Decreasing behavioral response in response to repetitive, meaningless stimulus.

Learning to associate a behavior with a reward.

Differentiation between a conditioned stimulus and other similar, but different, non-conditioned stimuli.

The behavior of an animal changing speed in random directions in response to environmental conditions.

As a stimulus occurs more often, the behavioral response increases.

3 / 40

3. Which of the following correctly represents the type II survivorship curve?

Long gestation period, few, large offspring, long time to mature, significant parental investment

Survival probability is constant regardless of age

Abundant, small offspring, mature quickly, no parental investment

Organism derives its energy from light and uses CO2 as its primary carbon source

Organism derives its energy from inorganic compounds and uses organic compounds as its primary carbon source

4 / 40

4. What is the type of symbiosis where one organism benefits and the other organism is unaffected?

Parasitism

Predation

Commensalism

Mutualism

Allelopathy

5 / 40

5. In terms of genetic variation, what does "balanced polymorphism" refer to?

A high mutation rate within a population

The maintenance of a variety of phenotypes within a population

The combination of gametes in sexual reproduction

The process of outbreeding in a population

The presence of multiple copies of alleles in plant species

6 / 40

6. Which of the following correctly describes the process of capacitation in sperm cells?

It is the process by which the sperm cell enters the zona pellucida of the egg cell

It is the process by which the sperm cell fuses with the egg cell during fertilization

It is the final maturation step for sperm prior to fertilization, triggered by secretions in the uterine wall

It is the division of a sperm cell into two haploid cells

It is the initial formation of sperm cells in the testes

7 / 40

7. In the context of birth control pills, how does the release of synthetic estrogen and progesterone prevent pregnancy?

By causing a rapid LH spike leading to ovulation.

By inhibiting GnRH production during the menstrual cycle through negative feedback.

By promoting the development of follicles in the ovary.

By causing uterine contractions which propel sperm.

By stimulating the formation of corpus luteum.

8 / 40

8. What are the three possible shapes for epithelial cells?

Rhomboidal, squamous, and cuboidal

Cuboidal, hexagonal, and pyramidal

Cuboidal, squamous, and trapezoidal

Squamous, cuboidal, and columnar

Columnar, cuboidal, and spherical

9 / 40

9. What are the three layers of the integumentary system?

Epidermis, endodermis, and hypodermis

Epidermis, dermis, and endothelium

Epidermis, mesodermis, and endodermis

Dermis, endodermis, and hypodermis

Epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis

10 / 40

10. Which hormone is produced by the adrenal cortex and increases salt and water reabsorption and potassium secretion in the distal tubules and collecting ducts?

Renin

Angiotensin II

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

Aldosterone

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

11 / 40

11. What is a key indicator of the health of the microbiome in the large intestine?

The level of glucose

The number of erythrocytes

The level of glycogen

Bile acid metabolism

The level of urea

12 / 40

12. What is the primary function of bile in the digestive process?

It emulsifies fats, aiding in their absorption.

It facilitates mechanical digestion by helping to churn food in the stomach.

It breaks down proteins into amino acids.

It neutralizes stomach acid to prevent damage to the small intestine.

It stimulates the secretion of digestive enzymes from the pancreas.

13 / 40

13. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the parafollicular cells in the thyroid gland?

Thyroxine (T4)

Calcitonin

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Triiodothyronine (T3)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

14 / 40

14. Which of the following hormones are derived from cholesterol?

Amino-acid derived hormones

Steroid hormones

All of the above

Peptide hormones

None of the above

15 / 40

15. Which of the following statements is true regarding fibrous connective tissue?

It is located between cortical and cancellous bone.

It provides support and stability to joints.

It is maintained and repaired by osteoblasts.

It has a matrix made up of fibers.

It is vascularized and innervated.

16 / 40

16. What structure quickens the propagation of action potentials on the muscle fiber?

T-tubules

Myofibrils

Acetylcholine

Troponin

Sarcomeres

17 / 40

17. What is the purpose of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle fibers?

To contract and shorten the sarcomeres.

To release stored calcium ions into the sarcoplasm.

To produce graded potentials on the muscle fibers.

To hold the myofilaments in place within the sarcomeres.

To allow ion exchange and electrical impulse propagation.

18 / 40

18. Which of the following is NOT a component of the limbic system?

Medulla oblongata

Thalamus

Hippocampus

Hypothalamus

Amygdala

19 / 40

19. Which glial cell type produces cerebrospinal fluid?

Ependymal cells

Schwann cells

Astrocytes

Microglial cells

Oligodendrocytes

20 / 40

20. What is the function of memory B cells?

To stimulate innate immunity

To recognize self proteins

To produce and release antibodies

To directly kill infected cells

To present antigens to T cells

21 / 40

21. Which of the following is true about myoglobin?

It has a lower affinity for oxygen than oxyhemoglobin

It is a single peptide with one heme cofactor

It is found within erythrocytes

It undergoes cooperativity

It transports most of the oxygen traveling in the blood.

22 / 40

22. What is the minimum amount of air that needs to be present in the lungs to prevent collapse?

Functional residual capacity.

Residual volume

Inspiratory reserve volume

Expiratory reserve volume

Tidal volume

23 / 40

23. What is the role of oncotic pressure in the capillaries?

Collects interstitial fluid, bacteria, fats, and proteins

Propels lymph via peristalsis

Filters lymph through lymph nodes

Pushes fluid out of the capillaries on the arterial end

Brings fluid back into the capillaries at the venule end

24 / 40

24. Which of the following is true regarding invertebrate circulation?

All of the above are false

Earthworms have an open circulatory system

Echinoderms use an open circulatory system

All invertebrates use a simple diffusion system to distribute nutrients

Arthropods have a closed circulatory system

25 / 40

25. Which of the following is true about gymnosperms?

They are the most abundant type of plant.

Their sperm is dispersed in seeds by wind.

They have independent gametophyte and sporophyte life-cycles.

They have flagellated sperm.

Their seeds are protected.

26 / 40

26. Which characteristic is unique to the phylum Mollusca?

Metamorphosis

Segmentation

Tube feet

Cnidocytes

Radula

27 / 40

27. What is the primary feature that distinguishes the three domains of life: Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya?

Their cell structure

Their metabolic processes

Their size

Their ability to reproduce

Their ability to produce spores

28 / 40

28. What is the primary goal of fluorescence recovery after photobleaching (FRAP)?

To identify the function of a gene.

To measure the movement of biomolecules in a live cell.

To measure the fluorescence lifetime of a cell.

To identify the localization of proteins of interest.

To increase the concentration of solute in a solution.

29 / 40

29. What type of microscopy is capable of visualizing fluorescent objects and reduces artifacts by focusing a beam of UV light onto the sample?

Phase contrast microscopy

Optical microscopy

Fluorescence microscopy

Electron microscopy

Confocal laser scanning microscopy

30 / 40

30. What is a haplotype?

A group of genes that are usually inherited together because they are located in close proximity to each other.

A group of genes that are inherited from one parent.

A group of genes that are inherited separately because they are located on different chromosomes.

A group of genes that are inherited from both parents.

A group of genes that are not inherited.

31 / 40

31. What is the role of telomerase in DNA replication?

It binds to uncoiled DNA strands to prevent reattachment.

It unzips the DNA strands.

It extends telomeres to prevent DNA loss.

It adds RNA primers at the origin of replication.

It replaces RNA primers with DNA.

32 / 40

32. In prokaryotic transcription, how does a termination sequence end the transcription process in Rho independent termination?

It adds a sigma factor to the RNA polymerase.

The RNA transcript folds into a hairpin loop, causing the RNA polymerase to fall off.

It binds to the promoter region, stopping transcription.

It causes supercoiling in the DNA strand.

It binds to the RNA polymerase, causing it to fall off.

33 / 40

33. How many pairs of autosomes are present in the human body?

2 pairs

22 pairs

1 pair

46 pairs

23 pairs

34 / 40

34. What is the term for the division of the nucleus?

Cytokinesis

Dyads

Centromeres

Karyokinesis

Ploidy

35 / 40

35. What is the main difference between heterotrophs and autotrophs?

There is no difference between heterotrophs and autotrophs.

Heterotrophs use photosynthesis, while autotrophs use cellular respiration.

Heterotrophs can make their own food, while autotrophs get energy from the food they eat.

Autotrophs use cellular respiration, while heterotrophs use photosynthesis.

Autotrophs can make their own food, while heterotrophs must get energy from the food they eat.

36 / 40

36. Where does beta-oxidation of free fatty acids occur in eukaryotic cells?

Golgi apparatus

Endoplasmic reticulum

Mitochondrial matrix

Cytosol

Nucleus

37 / 40

37. Which of the following is not evidence supporting the endosymbiotic theory?

Mitochondria and chloroplasts have the same number of ribosomes.

Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar in size.

Mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce independently of the host cell.

Mitochondria and chloroplasts possess their own circular DNA.

Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain a double membrane.

38 / 40

38. Which organelle is responsible for synthesizing lipids, producing steroid hormones, and detoxifying cells?

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Mitochondria

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Peroxisomes

Lysosomes

39 / 40

39. Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of cholesterol in the cell membrane?

It attaches cells to other cells.

It is used by cells to recognize other cells.

It makes the membrane less fluid at high temperatures and less fluid at low temperatures.

It binds to receptors and activates a target function.

It transmits signals all the way through the lipid bilayer.

40 / 40

40. Which type of bond is formed between two monosaccharides to form a disaccharide?

Ionic bond

Intramolecular bond

Intermolecular bond

Hydrogen bond

Covalent bond

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DAT Biology Practice Test #6

1 / 40

1. In the context of animal behaviors, what is the purpose of communication?

To increase an animal's fitness

To trigger a Fixed Action Pattern

To coordinate social behaviors with other animals

To facilitate classical conditioning

To foster non-associative learning

2 / 40

2. Which type of learning is NOT necessarily associated with reinforcement but involves an animal learning by observing another animal perform the same behavior?

Operant conditioning

Classical conditioning

Observational learning

Associative learning

Non-associative learning

3 / 40

3. What does the term 'brackish water' refer to in the context of aquatic biomes?

The water in the euphotic zone where sunlight penetrates all the way to the ocean floor

The water where bioluminescent species produce light

The water in the aphotic zone where there is no light or photosynthetic species

The water in the disphotic zone where there is semi-irradiation from the sun

The mixing of freshwater and saltwater, particularly in estuaries

4 / 40

4. What kind of organism is an autotroph?

An organism that produces organic compounds from abiotic factors.

An organism that utilizes inorganic compounds as their electron donors during cell respiration.

An organism that must ingest organic compounds to generate energy.

An organism that eats only plants.

An organism that eats both plants and animals.

5 / 40

5. How does biochemistry provide evidence of evolution?

By comparing the anatomy of different animals.

By studying the fossils of different species from various time periods.

By comparing DNA sequences and observing common conserved pathways in different species.

By observing embryological similarities and differences between related organisms.

By studying the spread of different species around the world.

6 / 40

6. During oogenesis, when does an ovum complete meiosis I?

During the embryonic development.

At puberty, during each monthly cycle.

During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.

When it is fertilized.

During the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.

7 / 40

7. What is the purpose of positive feedback loops in hormonal regulation?

To inhibit a pathway and decrease production

To stimulate a pathway and increase production

To facilitate the storage of hormones for future use

To decrease hormone production when levels are too high

To maintain the body's homeostasis

8 / 40

8. What differentiates the papillary dermis from the reticular dermis?

The papillary dermis is made of squamous cells, while the reticular dermis is made of columnar cells

The papillary dermis is deeper than the reticular dermis

The papillary dermis contains hair follicles, while the reticular dermis does not

The papillary dermis is more superficial and thin, while the reticular dermis is deeper and thick

The papillary dermis contains sebaceous glands, while the reticular dermis contains sweat glands

9 / 40

9. What is the function of the keratinocytes in the epidermis?

They protect against dehydration, UV radiation, and pathogens

They produce melanin for skin color

They produce vitamin D in response to sunlight

They store fat for insulation

They secrete sweat for thermoregulation

10 / 40

10. Which hormone is inhibited by the intake of alcohol, leading to increased urination?

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

Aldosterone

Angiotensin II

Renin

11 / 40

11. What is the primary function of the villi and microvilli in the small intestine?

They secrete mucus to lubricate the intestinal walls.

They increase the surface area of the intestine, enhancing nutrient absorption.

They protect the lining of the intestine from acidic chyme.

They produce digestive enzymes.

They facilitate peristalsis, aiding in the movement of food through the intestine.

12 / 40

12. Where does most digestion and nutrient absorption occur within the human body?

The small intestine

The mouth and esophagus

The stomach

The liver and gallbladder

The large intestine

13 / 40

13. Which gland produces melatonin, and what is its main function?

The pineal gland produces melatonin to regulate circadian rhythm.

The pituitary gland produces melatonin to stimulate body cells to grow and divide.

The hypothalamus produces melatonin to maintain homeostasis.

The adrenal gland produces melatonin to fight stress.

The thyroid gland produces melatonin to increase metabolism.

14 / 40

14. Which hormone stimulates the release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal gland?

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

Prolactin

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

15 / 40

15. Which type of joint partially moves and is cartilaginous?

Amphiarthroses

Diarthroses

Fibrous joints

Hyaline joints

Synarthroses

16 / 40

16. Which of the following statements accurately describes the H zone?

The H zone is the area in the sarcomere where actin and myosin overlap.

The H zone is the area in the sarcomere where only thin actin filaments are present.

The H zone is the area in the sarcomere where only thick myosin filaments are present.

The H zone is the midpoint of the sarcomere.

The H zone is the area in the sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present.

17 / 40

17. What is rigor mortis?

A condition in which the sarcoplasmic reticulum is damaged.

The state of muscle contraction that occurs after death due to the absence of ATP.

A state of muscle relaxation.

The state of muscle contraction that occurs when there is an excess of ATP.

A state of muscle contraction that occurs in living animals.

18 / 40

18. What is the function of microglial cells?

To form the myelin sheath

To form the blood-brain barrier

To help support and surround neurons

To protect the central nervous system

To produce cerebrospinal fluid

19 / 40

19. Which of the following is not a part of the neuron?

Axon

Dendrites

All of the above are parts of the neuron

Synapse

Soma

20 / 40

20. Which type of immunity is gained from receiving antibodies from another organism that already has that immunity?

Humoral immunity

Active immunity

Artificial immunity

Passive immunity

Innate immunity

21 / 40

21. How does decreased pH affect hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen?

None of the above

Decreased pH increases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen

Decreased pH has no effect on hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen

Decreased pH eliminates hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen

Decreased pH reduces hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen

22 / 40

22. Which of the following conditions is caused by rapid breathing?

Metabolic acidosis

None of the above

Metabolic alkalosis

Respiratory acidosis

Respiratory alkalosis

23 / 40

23. Which of the following statements is true about the chordates' circulatory system?

The alligators and crocodiles are an exception and have a 3-chambered heart

Reptiles and amphibians have 4-chambered hearts

Homeothermic chordates have a 3-chambered heart

Fish have a 4-chambered heart

Most chordates have an open circulatory system

24 / 40

24. Which of the following statements is true about heart sounds?

Systole occurs between the dub and next lub sound

The “dub” sound is caused by atria contracting while the ventricles are relaxing

The “lub” sound is caused by semilunar valves snapping shut

Diastole occurs between the lub and dub sounds

The semilunar valves snap shut during the dub sound

25 / 40

25. Which of the following is not a component of the pistil?

Stigma

Ovary

Filament

All of the above are components of the pistil.

Style

26 / 40

26. Which of the following is a characteristic of fungi?

Photosynthetic ability

Presence of cell wall made of chitin

All of the above

Eukaryotic and prokaryotic forms

Unicellular and multicellular forms

27 / 40

27. Which phylum is characterized by having a gastrovascular cavity for digestion?

Platyhelminthes

Nematoda

Mollusca

Cnidaria

Annelida

28 / 40

28. What is the difference between totipotent, pluripotent, and multipotent cells?

Their ability to replicate.

Their size and shape.

Their ability to carry genetic information.

Their ability to differentiate into different types of cells.

Their ability to be found in different parts of the body.

29 / 40

29. Which of the following cellular biological lab techniques is based on the principle of electrical resistance?

Automated cell counting

Colony Forming Units (CFUs)

Bacterial growth curve

Differential centrifugation

Hemocytometers

30 / 40

30. What is a Pedigree chart used for?

To track inherited traits over many generations to see inheritance patterns.

To illustrate the process of gene linkage.

To visualize the process of nondisjunction during cell division.

To determine the genotype of an individual in a cross.

To visualize the process of crossing over during prophase I of meiosis.

31 / 40

31. Which of the following best describes the role of the TATA box in eukaryotic transcription?

It is a DNA site where repressor proteins bind to decrease gene transcription.

It is an enzyme that attaches an amino acid to a specific tRNA using ATP.

It is an enzyme that adds adenine nucleotides to the 3’ end of the mRNA.

It is a sequence in many promoters that transcription factors recognize and bind to.

It is a protein that assists newly synthesized polypeptides to fold into their correct shape.

32 / 40

32. What is the function of topoisomerase in the process of DNA replication?

It nicks the DNA double helix ahead of helicase to relieve built-up tension and supercoiling.

It places RNA primers at the origin of replication to create 3’ ends for nucleotide addition.

It unzips the DNA by breaking hydrogen bonds between strands.

It holds DNA polymerase onto the template strand.

It adds free nucleoside triphosphates to 3’ ends.

33 / 40

33. What is the purpose of anchorage dependence in cell regulation?

To prevent cancerous growth

To signal for cell division

To halt cell division when density of cells is high

To check for chromosomal attachment to spindle fibers

To divide only when attached to an external surface

34 / 40

34. What happens during the S phase of the cell cycle?

Cells carry out their functions but halt in the cell cycle

Cell grows in preparation for division

Cell checks DNA for any errors after replication

Cell replicates its genome

The physical separation of the cytoplasm and cell membrane into two daughter cells occurs

35 / 40

35. What is the final product of the Calvin cycle?

ATP and NADPH

Water

Oxygen

Carbon dioxide

Glucose

36 / 40

36. Why are proteins considered the least desirable source of energy?

None of the above

They are needed for essential functions in the body

They require a considerable amount of energy to enter cellular respiration

All of the above

They are difficult to break down

37 / 40

37. What happens to pyruvate in pyruvate oxidation?

It is converted into NADH.

It is converted into ATP.

It is converted into glucose.

It is converted into ADP.

It is converted into acetyl-CoA.

38 / 40

38. Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of microfilaments in the cytoskeleton?

They act as motor proteins that transport cargo along microtubules.

They assist in cell movement and can quickly assemble and disassemble.

They mainly provide structural support, like keratin in skin, hair, and nails.

They are hollow structures that have walls made of tubulin protein dimers.

They are involved in the formation of the nuclear lamina.

39 / 40

39. What is the main difference between integral and peripheral membrane proteins?

Integral proteins are amphipathic, while peripheral proteins are hydrophilic.

Integral proteins are composed of glycoproteins, while peripheral proteins are not.

Integral proteins bind to receptors, while peripheral proteins do not.

Integral proteins introduce kinks in the lipid bilayer, while peripheral proteins do not.

Integral proteins increase the fluidity of the cell membrane, while peripheral proteins decrease it.

40 / 40

40. What is a proteome?

The set of amino acids in a polypeptide

None of the above

The sequence of amino acids connected through peptide bonds

The three-dimensional structure of a protein

All of the proteins expressed by one type of cell under one set of conditions

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